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Let $R$ be an integral domain with the property that all modules over $R$ are projective. Does it follow that $R$ is a field? Obviously the converse is true.

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Yes. mathoverflow.net/questions/62464/… –  Qiaochu Yuan Dec 22 '11 at 19:18
    
A key search term is Global Dimension. en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Global_dimension –  jspecter Dec 22 '11 at 19:22
    
But the product of fields is not necessarily a field, is it? Does specifying that $R$ be integral make it the trivial product? –  jerome d Dec 22 '11 at 19:22
    
If this is true I would like to know a little bit about how technical the proof is. I have tried proving this using basic facts about projective modules but can't seem to do it. –  jerome d Dec 22 '11 at 19:24
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Right, the product of fields is never an integral domain, so the only integral domains with your property are fields. –  Thomas Andrews Dec 22 '11 at 19:32
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1 Answer 1

up vote 8 down vote accepted

If $R$ is not a field, it has a nonzero proper ideal $I$, and $R/I$ is not projective, because it is a nonzero torsion module.

Variation: The canonical projection $R\to R/I$ doesn't split.

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@jspecter: Corrected. Thanks! –  Pierre-Yves Gaillard Dec 22 '11 at 19:25
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