Take the 2-minute tour ×
Mathematics Stack Exchange is a question and answer site for people studying math at any level and professionals in related fields. It's 100% free, no registration required.

If $I_1,...,I_n$ are comaximal ideals in a commutative ring, then $I_1\cdots I_n=I_1\cap \cdots \cap I_n$. Does this extend to infinitely many comaximal ideals? The proof I have seen uses induction, so not sure if this does extend.

share|improve this question
How do you define an infinite product of ideals? –  Dylan Moreland Dec 20 '11 at 4:30

Your Answer


By posting your answer, you agree to the privacy policy and terms of service.

Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.