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I have a question that I need help with getting started (possibly I would be back for more help).
I am stuck on getting started, anybody have any suggestions? thanks much |
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First it's easy to see that $$(a_n)^{\frac{1}{n}}=\Big(\int_X|f|^nd\mu\Big)^{\frac{1}{n}}\leq\|f\|_\infty\mu(X)^\frac{1}{n},$$ which implies that $$\lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}(a_n)^{\frac{1}{n}}\leq\|f\|_\infty,$$ where we have used the fact that $\mu(X)$ is finite. On the other hand, by definition of $\|f\|_\infty$, for all $\epsilon>0$, there exists a measurable set $E$ in $X$ such that $\mu(E)>0$ and $f\geq \|f\|_\infty-\epsilon$ on $E$. Hence, we have $$(a_n)^{\frac{1}{n}}=\Big(\int_X|f|^nd\mu\Big)^{\frac{1}{n}}\geq\Big(\int_E|f|^nd\mu\Big)^{\frac{1}{n}}=(\|f\|_\infty-\epsilon)\mu(E)^{\frac{1}{n}}.$$ As $n\rightarrow\infty$, we have $$\lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}(a_n)^{\frac{1}{n}}\geq(\|f\|_\infty-\epsilon).$$ Combining the above inequalities, we have $$\|f\|_\infty\geq\lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}(a_n)^{\frac{1}{n}}\geq(\|f\|_\infty-\epsilon).$$ Since $\epsilon>0$ is arbitrary, we have $$\lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}(a_n)^{\frac{1}{n}}=\|f\|_\infty.$$ Now the result follows easily from the fact that $$\lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}\frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}=\lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}(a_n)^{\frac{1}{n}}.$$ Note added: I make a mistake here. First I thought that $\lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}\frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}=L$ would imply $\lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}(a_n)^{\frac{1}{n}}=L$. But this is not correct. Please refer to the proof by Didier. |
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The result holds as soon as $\|f\|_\infty$ is positive and finite. To prove this, assume without loss of generality that $f\geqslant0$ almost everywhere and $\|f\|_\infty=1$. Then $0\leqslant f^{n+1}\leqslant f^n$ almost everywhere hence $0\leqslant a_{n+1}\leqslant a_n$. Since $a_{n}\ne0$, this yields $$ \limsup\limits_{n\to\infty}\ a_{n+1}/a_n\leqslant1. $$ In the other direction, note that for every positive $u\lt v\lt1$, $A=[f\geqslant u]$ and $B=[f\geqslant v]$ both have positive measure, and that, for every $n\geqslant0$, $$ a_n\geqslant\int_Bf^n\geqslant v^n\mu(B). $$ Hence, $$ a_{n+1}\geqslant u\int_A f^n=ua_n-u\int_{X\setminus A}f^n\geqslant ua_n-\mu(X\setminus A)u^n, $$ where the first inequality comes from the fact that $f^{n+1}\geqslant uf^n$ on $A$ and $f^{n+1}\geqslant 0$ everywhere, and the second inequality comes from the fact that $f^n\lt u^n$ on $X\setminus A$. Together, these two lower bounds on $a_n$ and $a_{n+1}$ yield $$ \frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}\geqslant u-\frac{\mu(X\setminus A)}{\mu(B)}\left(\frac{u}v\right)^n. $$ Since $u\lt v$ and $\mu(X\setminus A)$ is finite, $\liminf\limits_{n\to\infty}\ a_{n+1}/a_n\geqslant u$. This holds for every $u\lt1$, hence $$ \lim\limits_{n\to\infty}\ a_{n+1}/a_n=1. $$ |
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