Two brief questions. This seems true but I don't find it using Google. (1) Isn't
$$\sum_{k=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{p(k^2)}$$, in which $p(k^2)$ is the $k^2$th prime,
known to converge? I expected to find something in Plouffe around 0.747187, but did not.
It seems that $p(k^2) > k^2$ proves convergence, but then did I miscalculate the constant?
It occurred to me that we might we use comparison (via the PNT) for a series, but all we know is that termwise $$\frac{1}{p(k^2)}\sim \frac{1}{k^2\ln k^2},$$ and I don't think that $a\sim b$ and $c \sim d$ gives $a+c \sim b+d$ ? So, (2) is it correct that the logarithmic sum also converges but gives no clue as to convergence of the sum in question?
SequenceLimit[Drop[N[Accumulate[1/Prime[Range[7000]^2]], 600], 2000]]), the best estimate I have is0.7471881931, but I'd only trust the first three digits... – J. M. Dec 13 '11 at 5:27