Tell me more ×
Mathematics Stack Exchange is a question and answer site for people studying math at any level and professionals in related fields. It's 100% free, no registration required.

I'm looking for a way to prove

$$ (p \to (q \to r)) \to ((p \to q) \to (p \to r)) $$ from the axioms

$$ \begin{align} & p \to (q \to p) \\ & (p \to (p \to q)) \to (p \to q) \\ & (p \to q) \to ((q \to r) \to (p \to r)) \\ & (\sim p \to \, \sim q) \to (q \to p) \\ \end{align} $$ using universal substitution and modus ponens

I suspect the fourth axiom is not necessary for the proof.

I have been working in Tarski's Introduction to Logic and am trying to establish the equivalence of his axiom system with the axioms used at us.metamath.org

$$ \begin{align} & p \to (q \to p) \\ & (p \to (q \to r)) \to ((p \to q) \to (p \to r)) \\ & ( \sim p \to \, \sim q) \to (q \to p) \\ \end{align} $$ which will allow me to connect Tarski's 4 axioms with all sorts of interesting proofs on that site.

share|improve this question
1  
Do you have the deduction theorem available for your system? – Henning Makholm Dec 11 '11 at 2:32
@toph: I agree that the fourth axiom is not relevant here. The proposition you are trying to prove is essentially an internal form of modus ponens, which is valid intuitionitically, but the fourth axiom is essentially double negation elimination. – Zhen Lin Dec 11 '11 at 2:55
This appears to be hard -- are you sure the four axioms you've given are all there is? The first three ones are the K, W, and (almost) B axioms of the BCKW system of combinatory logic, but the C axiom is missing. That makes me doubt that the system you present is complete. – Henning Makholm Dec 11 '11 at 4:45
2  
The axioms are taken from page 147 of Tarski's Introduction to Logic. I must (guiltily) add that there are three other axioms: (p <-> q) -> (p -> q), (p <-> q) -> (q -> p), (p -> q) -> ((q -> p) -> (p <-> q). I couldn't see how these axioms, which basically define equivalence, would be necessary. But following your remarks I suspect the last axiom above in particular might be crucial. Thanks for your help so far! – toph Dec 11 '11 at 13:11
3  
Aha! Wikipedia's List of logic systems lists your three (original) axioms as Hilbert's second system for "Postive implicational calculus" (i.e., the implicational fragment of intuitionistic logic). Since your target sentence is intuitionistically valid, it indeed ought to be derivable. Still beats me how, though. – Henning Makholm Dec 11 '11 at 15:23
show 7 more comments

4 Answers

up vote 12 down vote accepted

As you suspected, this can be proved from the first three axioms only. I couldn't find a short proof, though – I tried brute force enumeration of the theorems deducible from the three axioms (by taking all pairs of theorems already proved and unifying one with the premise of the other), but didn't find your target in the first $80000$ theorems proved.

I then found some guidance in the article on relevance logic in the Handbook of Philosophical Logic. Relevance logic focuses on the fragment of logic in which, roughly speaking, the premises are relevant to the conclusions. It doesn't include the axiom $p\to(q\to p)$, which allows us to add an irrelevant premise to a theorem already proved without that premise, and is thus strictly weaker than the system you're using, but we can nevertheless make use of the results cited in that article.

I'll first describe the structure of the proof and how I found it, and then give the proof in detail. Here are the names I'll use for the axioms; the first column names the corresponding axioms of combinator logic, for comparison with the discussion in the comments under the question:

$$ \begin{array}{c|l|l} \mathbf I&\text{self-implication}&p\to p\\ \mathbf K&\text{weakening}& p \to (q \to p) \\ \hline \mathbf B&\text{prefixing}& (p \to q) \to ((r \to p) \to (r \to q)) \\ \mathbf A&\text{suffixing}& (p \to q) \to ((q \to r) \to (p \to r)) \\ \hline \mathbf W&\text{contraction}& (p \to (p \to q)) \to (p \to q) \\ \mathbf S&\text{self-distribution}&(p \to (q \to r)) \to ((p \to q) \to (p \to r))\\ \hline \mathbf C&\text{permutation}&(p\to(q\to r))\to(q\to(p\to r))\\ &\text{assertion}&p\to((p\to q)\to q) \end{array} $$

(The names are the ones used in the article, except I use "weakening" instead of "positive paradox", since it's shorter and makes more sense to me.)

Theorem $1$ of the article states that, with modus ponens (and implicitly universal substitution), the axiom sets formed by self-implication and one each from the three pairs prefixing/suffixing, contraction/self-distribution and permutation/assertion lead to the same theory.

What you have is weakening, suffixing and contraction. Self-implication can be deduced from weakening and contraction in a single step (by substituting $p$ for $q$ everywhere). Thus, if we can deduce assertion in your system, the theorem will tell us that we can deduce everything else, including your target, self-distribution. I did find a proof for assertion by brute force search.

The article doesn't give a proof of its Theorem $1$ and only says that it can be proved by consulting a book that isn't available online and doing some "fiddling", so we still have to show how to get from self-implication, suffixing, contraction and assertion to self-distribution.

I found a deduction of self-distribution online that uses prefixing and permutation. It turns out that prefixing is deducible in a single step from suffixing and permutation, so the problem remained only to deduce permutation. Again, I found a proof for this by brute force search.

So here's the entire proof put together, starting with your three axioms and ending with your target. First, a high-level description similar to the actual calls in my Java code:

assertion = t (t (weakening,suffixing),contraction);
permutation = t (suffixing,m (assertion,suffixing));
prefixing = m (suffixing,permutation);
target = t (m (prefixing,prefixing),t (permutation,m (contraction,prefixing)));

Each call to m is an application of modus ponens, in which the first argument is $A$, the second argument is $A\to B$ and the most general unifier that makes the $A$s coincide is used. Each call to t is an invocation of transitivity (i.e. deducing $A\to C$ from $A\to B$ and $B\to C$), which can be implemented as

t (A->B,B->C) = m (B->C,m (A->B,suffixing))

using suffixing, or as

t (A->B,B->C) = m (A->B,m (B->C,prefixing))

once prefixing is available.

Here's the proof spelled out in $14$ steps. The first table shows the theorems used to generate the antecedents $A$ and the implications $A\to B$ for modus ponens, as well as the resulting theorems $B$:

$$ \begin{array}{c|c|c|c|c} &&A&A\to B&B\\\hline \text{(a)}&\text{weakening}&&&p \to (q \to p)\\ \text{(b)}&\text{suffixing}&&&(p \to q) \to ((q \to r) \to (p \to r))\\ \text{(c)}&\text{contraction}&&&(p \to (p \to q)) \to (p \to q)\\ \hline \text{(d)}&\text{*}&\text{(a)}&\text{(b)}&((p \to q) \to r) \to (q \to r)\\ \text{(e)}&&\text{(b)}&\text{(d)}&p \to ((p \to q) \to (r \to q))\\ \text{(f)}&\text{*}&\text{(e)}&\text{(b)}&(((p \to q) \to (r \to q)) \to s) \to (p \to s)\\ \text{(g)}&\text{assertion}&\text{(c)}&\text{(f)}&p \to ((p \to q) \to q)\\ \text{(h)}&&\text{(g)}&\text{(b)}&(((p \to q) \to q) \to r) \to (p \to r)\\ \text{(i)}&\text{*}&\text{(b)}&\text{(b)}&(((p \to q) \to (r \to q)) \to s) \to ((r \to p) \to s)\\ \text{(j)}&\text{permutation}&\text{(h)}&\text{(i)}&(p \to (q \to r)) \to (q \to (p \to r))\\ \text{(k)}&\text{prefixing}&\text{(b)}&\text{(j)}&(p \to q) \to ((r \to p) \to (r \to q))\\ \text{(l)}&&\text{(k)}&\text{(k)}&(p \to (q \to r)) \to (p \to ((s \to q) \to (s \to r)))\\ \text{(m)}&&\text{(c)}&\text{(k)}&(p \to (q \to (q \to r))) \to (p \to (q \to r))\\ \text{(n)}&\text{*}&\text{(j)}&\text{(b)}&((p \to (q \to r)) \to s) \to ((q \to (p \to r)) \to s)\\ \text{(o)}&&\text{(m)}&\text{(n)}&(p \to (q \to (p \to r))) \to (q \to (p \to r))\\ \text{(p)}&\text{*}&\text{(l)}&\text{(b)}&((p \to ((q \to r) \to (q \to s))) \to t) \to ((p \to (r \to s)) \to t)\\ \text{(q)}&\text{self-distribution}&\text{(o)}&\text{(p)}&(p \to (q \to r)) \to ((p \to q) \to (p \to r))\\ \end{array} $$

The asterisks mark intermediate steps in invocations of transitivity. Note that most theorems with more than three variables occur only in such intermediate steps. Substitutions are being performed as late as possible; by performing them as early as possible, the proof could be written using only theorems with at most three variables.

The second table shows the substitutions used; you can also find these automatically by unification. The variables are named such that they appear in alphabetical order in the resulting theorems.

$$ \begin{array}{c|l|l} &A&A\to B\\\hline \text{(d)}& p\mapsto q,q\mapsto p& p\mapsto q,q\mapsto (p \to q),r\mapsto r\\ \text{(e)}& p\mapsto r,q\mapsto p,r\mapsto q& p\mapsto r,q\mapsto p,r\mapsto ((p \to q) \to (r \to q))\\ \text{(f)}& p\mapsto p,q\mapsto q,r\mapsto r& p\mapsto p,q\mapsto ((p \to q) \to (r \to q)),r\mapsto s\\ \text{(g)}& p\mapsto (p \to q),q\mapsto q& p\mapsto p,q\mapsto q,r\mapsto (p \to q),s\mapsto ((p \to q) \to q)\\ \text{(h)}& p\mapsto p,q\mapsto q& p\mapsto p,q\mapsto ((p \to q) \to q),r\mapsto r\\ \text{(i)}& p\mapsto r,q\mapsto p,r\mapsto q& p\mapsto (r \to p),q\mapsto ((p \to q) \to (r \to q)),r\mapsto s\\ \text{(j)}& p\mapsto q,q\mapsto r,r\mapsto (p \to r)& p\mapsto (q \to r),q\mapsto r,r\mapsto p,s\mapsto (q \to (p \to r))\\ \text{(k)}& p\mapsto r,q\mapsto p,r\mapsto q& p\mapsto (r \to p),q\mapsto (p \to q),r\mapsto (r \to q)\\ \text{(l)}& p\mapsto q,q\mapsto r,r\mapsto s& p\mapsto (q \to r),q\mapsto ((s \to q) \to (s \to r)),r\mapsto p\\ \text{(m)}& p\mapsto q,q\mapsto r& p\mapsto (q \to (q \to r)),q\mapsto (q \to r),r\mapsto p\\ \text{(n)}& p\mapsto q,q\mapsto p,r\mapsto r& p\mapsto (q \to (p \to r)),q\mapsto (p \to (q \to r)),r\mapsto s\\ \text{(o)}& p\mapsto q,q\mapsto p,r\mapsto r& p\mapsto q,q\mapsto p,r\mapsto (p \to r),s\mapsto (q \to (p \to r))\\ \text{(p)}& p\mapsto p,q\mapsto r,r\mapsto s,s\mapsto q& p\mapsto (p \to (r \to s)),q\mapsto (p \to ((q \to r) \to (q \to s))),r\mapsto t\\ \text{(q)}& p\mapsto p,q\mapsto (p \to q),r\mapsto r& p\mapsto p,q\mapsto p,r\mapsto q,s\mapsto r,t\mapsto ((p \to q) \to (p \to r))\\ \end{array} $$

share|improve this answer
1  
Well done! ${}$ – Henning Makholm Dec 21 '11 at 13:48
Would you mind if I add a column to your first table showing the corresponding combinator names for comparison with the discussion between me and Zhen Lin in the comments? – Henning Makholm Dec 21 '11 at 13:53
@Henning: That would be great, thanks! – joriki Dec 21 '11 at 13:55
@Henning: Interesting -- so the answer actually fits well with your discussion, in that the hard part that I did by computer search was to deduce $\mathbf C$/permutation (up to step (j)), and the rest was known. – joriki Dec 21 '11 at 14:29

It seems to me that a much simpler and human readable proof is possible, unless I’m misunderstanding something. Using the Deduction Theorem, the result is relatively straightforward to prove. This motivated me to prove the Deduction Theorem for this logical system, which I found to be less straightforward, but still not particularly difficult.

To make sure we’re all on the same page, the logical system in question consists of the inference rule modus ponens (MP) and the following three axiom schema:

axiom 1 $\;\;\;\;\; p \; \rightarrow \; (q \rightarrow p)$

axiom 2 $\;\;\;\;\;(p \rightarrow q) \;\; \rightarrow \;\; [\; (q \rightarrow r) \rightarrow (p \rightarrow r) \; ]$

axiom 3 $\;\;\;\;\;[\; p \rightarrow (p \rightarrow q) \; ] \;\; \rightarrow \;\; (p \rightarrow q)$

We want to show that the following wff (well formed formula) is provable in this logical system:

$$[p \rightarrow (q \rightarrow r)] \;\; \rightarrow \;\; [(p \rightarrow q) \rightarrow (p \rightarrow r)]$$

By 3 applications of the Deduction Theorem (proved further below), it suffices to prove $r$ under the following assumptions: $p \rightarrow (q \rightarrow r),$ $p \rightarrow q,$ and $p.$ That is, it suffices to prove

$$ p \rightarrow (q \rightarrow r), \; p \rightarrow q, \; p \;\vdash \; r$$

(1) $\;\;\;p \rightarrow q$

(2) $\;\;\;$(line 1) $\rightarrow [\;(q \rightarrow r) \rightarrow (p \rightarrow r)\;]$

(3) $\;\;\;(q \rightarrow r) \rightarrow (p \rightarrow r)$

(4) $\;\;\;p \rightarrow (q \rightarrow r)$

(5) $\;\;\;p$

(6) $\;\;\;q \rightarrow r$

(7) $\;\;\;p \rightarrow r$

(8) $\;\;\;r$

Reasons for the above steps

(1) $\;\;\;$assumption

(2) $\;\;\;$axiom 2

(3) $\;\;\;$MP (lines 1, 2)

(4) $\;\;\;$assumption

(5) $\;\;\;$assumption

(6) $\;\;\;$MP (lines 5, 4)

(7) $\;\;\;$MP (lines 6, 3)

(8) $\;\;\;$MP (lines 5, 7)

In trying to prove the Deduction Theorem for this logical system (i.e. $\Gamma, \;p \vdash q$ implies $\Gamma \vdash p \rightarrow q$), I simply followed the standard proof (which makes use of axiom 1 and the wff we originally wanted to prove), and noted that the standard proof only requires us to make use of the following 3 results:

  1. If $q$ is an axiom or a member of $\Gamma$, then for any wff $p$ we can prove $p \rightarrow q$ in our logical system.

  2. We can prove $p \rightarrow p$ in our logical system.

  3. Given $p \rightarrow r$ and $p \rightarrow (r \rightarrow q)$, we can prove $p \rightarrow q$ in our logical system.

proof of 1: $\;\;\;$Apply MP to $q$ and $q \rightarrow (p \rightarrow q)$ (axiom 1).

proof of 2: $\;\;\;$Apply MP to $p \rightarrow (p \rightarrow p)$ (axiom 1) and axiom 3.

proof of 3: $\;\;\;$This is the difficult part. Below is a proof of what’s needed, namely

$$ p \rightarrow r, \; p \rightarrow (r \rightarrow q) \;\vdash \; p \rightarrow q$$

(1) $\;\;\;p \rightarrow r$

(2) $\;\;\;p \rightarrow (r \rightarrow q)$

(3) $\;\;\;$(line 1) $\rightarrow \; [(r \rightarrow q) \rightarrow (p \rightarrow q)]$

(4) $\;\;\;(r \rightarrow q) \rightarrow (p \rightarrow q)$

(5) $\;\;\;$(line 2) $\;\;\rightarrow \;\; \{\;$(line 4)$ \rightarrow [p \rightarrow (p \rightarrow q)] \; \}$

(6) $\;\;\;$(line 4) $\;\rightarrow \; [p \rightarrow (p \rightarrow q)]$

(7) $\;\;\;p \rightarrow (p \rightarrow q)$

(8) $\;\;\;[p \rightarrow (p \rightarrow q)] \; \rightarrow \; (p \rightarrow q)$

(9) $\;\;\;p \rightarrow q$

Reasons for the above steps

(1) $\;\;\;$assumption

(2) $\;\;\;$assumption

(3) $\;\;\;$axiom 2 ($r$ is $q$)

(4) $\;\;\;$MP (lines 1, 3)

(5) $\;\;\;$axiom 2 ($r$ is $p \rightarrow q$)

(6) $\;\;\;$MP (lines 2, 5)

(7) $\;\;\;$MP (lines 4, 6)

(8) $\;\;\;$axiom 3

(9) $\;\;\;$MP (lines 7, 8)

Here is how I discovered the above proof. Working backwards, I noticed that the conclusion of axiom 3 was what I wanted, so I made note of the fact that it would be enough to obtain $p \rightarrow (p \rightarrow q).$ Then I tried working forward. First, I applied axiom 2 followed by MP to the assumption $p \rightarrow r,$ using $q$ as the introduced suffix. (Since I already had $p$ and $r$ appearing, this seemed to be a natural way to get $q$ to appear.) Then I tried applying axiom 2 followed by MP to the assumption $p \rightarrow (r \rightarrow q).$ At some point (perhaps my 3rd attempt), I used $p \rightarrow q$ as the introduced suffix, motivated by the fact that this got line 4 to show up. After this, the proof immediately fell into place, since in line 5 the conclusion of the conclusion is $p \rightarrow (p \rightarrow q),$ which I had previouly noted was sufficient.

Incidentally, the logical system above is the same (in the sense of having the same set of provable wffs) as the logical system with the inference rule MP and the following two axioms: axiom 1 and the wff we originally wanted to prove. Each of these logical systems is also equal to the logical system with MP and Deductive Theorem as inference rules and no axioms (thus, one might call this system “DT Logic”). I think logicians call this the positive implicational fragment of intuitionistic propositional logic, but I like “DT Logic” better. Other axiomatizations of DT Logic can be found at the Wikipedia page “List of logic systems” under the category “Positive implicational calculus”.

For completeness, here’s a proof that DT Logic can be characterized by no axioms along with the inference rules MP and DT (and also the Rule of Assumptions, I suppose). It suffices to prove, in this no-axiom logical system, axiom 1 and the wff we were proving in this thread.

  1. $\;\;\;p,\; q \vdash p\;$ implies $\;p \vdash q \rightarrow p\;$ implies $\;\vdash p \rightarrow (q \rightarrow p)$

  2. $\;\;\;p \rightarrow (q \rightarrow r), \; p \rightarrow q, \; p \; \vdash \; r\;\;\;$ (MP, 3 times)

implies $\;p \rightarrow (q \rightarrow r), \; p \rightarrow q \; \vdash \; p \rightarrow r\;\;\;$ (DT)

implies $\;p \rightarrow (q \rightarrow r) \; \vdash \; (p \rightarrow q) \rightarrow (p \rightarrow r)\;\;\;$ (DT)

implies $\;\vdash \; [p \rightarrow (q \rightarrow r)] \;\; \rightarrow \;\; [(p \rightarrow q) \rightarrow (p \rightarrow r)] \;\;\;$ (DT)

share|improve this answer
1  
Well done too. In combinator-logical notation, this amounts to using $\mathbf W(\mathbf A\;M\;(\mathbf A\;N))$ instead of $\mathbf S\;M\;N$ in the translation of an application -- which is indeed so simple that we ought to have been able to find it by hand. – Henning Makholm Dec 27 '11 at 18:10
1  
Incidentally, your "MP+DT" formulation is known (at least in computer-sciency contexts) as "natural deduction" for $\to$, and corresponds exactly, via the Curry-Howard isomorphism, to the simply typed lambda calculus. – Henning Makholm Dec 27 '11 at 18:14
I only saw this now; great! – joriki May 14 '12 at 7:55

For comparison, here is Joriki's solution in the combinator language we used in the comment thread between me and Zhen Lin: $$\begin{align} \mathbf X &= \mathbf A (\mathbf A \; \mathbf K \; \mathbf A) \mathbf W \\ \mathbf C &= \mathbf A \; \mathbf A (\mathbf A \; \mathbf X) \\ \mathbf B &= \mathbf C \; \mathbf A \\ \mathbf S &= \mathbf A (\mathbf B \; \mathbf B) \; (\mathbf A \; \mathbf C (\mathbf B \; \mathbf W)) \end{align}$$ where $\mathbf X$ is an ad-hoc name for Joriki's "assertion" formula.

Zhen Lin's constuction for the final line $$\mathbf{S} = \mathbf{A A} ( \mathbf{A} ( \mathbf{B W} ) ( \mathbf{A A} ) )$$ is slightly more efficient than Joriki's because it contains only one $\mathbf B$ that needs to be unfolded. This yields the final term $$ \mathbf S = \mathbf A\; \mathbf A\;(\mathbf A ( \mathbf A \; \mathbf A (\mathbf A \; (\mathbf A (\mathbf A \; \mathbf K \; \mathbf A) \mathbf W) ) \mathbf A \; \mathbf W) \; (\mathbf A\; \mathbf A)) $$ which encodes a Hilbert-style proof with 15 fully substituted axiom instances and 14 modus ponens steps.

share|improve this answer
Thanks very much for this! An impressive demonstration of the conciseness of combinator logic :-) – joriki Dec 21 '11 at 15:21

This isn't much at all, but I think too long for a comment. Managing parenthesis for long formulas becomes difficult for me, so I'll use Polish notation.

Somewhere in the proof (which most fittingly I would think would come as the penultimate step of the proof) we have to have one of the following:

  1. C CCpqCpr C CpCqr CCpqCpr (substitution instance of axiom 1).

  2. CC CpCqr C CpCqr CCpqCpr C CpCqr CCpqCpr (substitution instance of axiom 2).

  3. C CpCqr x C x CCpqCpr C CpCqr CCpqCpr (substitution instance of axiom 3).

  4. CC NCCpqCpr NCpCqr C CpCqr CCpqCpr (substitution instance of axiom 4).

Now, CCpqCpr is not a theorem in a complete classical propositional calculus. So, cross out 1. The antecedent of 2; CCpCqrCCpCqrCCpqCpr can't get proven using the rules here, since we'd have to have CpCqr as a theorem. Edit: so, we can't have 2 as the penultimate step of the proof. We might still have CCpCqrCCpCqrCCpqCpr as a theorem (if we don't have it as a theorem we know right then and there the system is incomplete with respect to the full, classical propositional calculus), but we'd have to have CCpCqrCCpCqrCCpqCpr as the consequent of some other theorem, along with the antecedent of this other theorem as a theorem also.

So, either a step of one of the forms of 3, or 4 will appear in the proof somewhere. The antecedent of 3 I'd guess contingent, while the antecedent of 4 does hold as a tautology... though I'm not sure it qualifies as a theorem in this system.

share|improve this answer
1  
Please don't leave downvotes without stating the reason. From the FAQ: "Add comments indicating what, specifically, is wrong." – joriki Dec 13 '11 at 4:58
@joriki: This has been discussed at meta.math.stackexchange.com/questions/3153/… – Carl Mummert Dec 13 '11 at 19:14
2  
I added a second downvote because writing formulas in Polish notation only serves to obfuscate an otherwise very nice post. – Carl Mummert Dec 13 '11 at 19:17
@Carl: Many thanks for the link. If I remember correctly this is the second time I've learned something important from you about this site. Also thanks for explaining your downvote ;-) – joriki Dec 13 '11 at 19:22
3  
@CarlMummert So goes your opinion. You can find hints in the logical literature that some have disagreed at points at least, such as Rose and Rosser (unless they wanted to obfuscate things), as described by Chang jstor.org/pss/20015986. After all, "C" comes as an abbreviation for "conditional" while "->" isn't like that. So, I don't see how they can "only serve to obfuscate", though they may obfuscate to you for sure. – Doug Spoonwood Dec 14 '11 at 4:33

Your Answer

 
discard

By posting your answer, you agree to the privacy policy and terms of service.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.