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I'm reading in a paper: "Let $\theta$ be a $(1,0)$-form with respect to $I$ ($I \theta = -i \theta$)". Here $I$ is the almost complex structure.

Any idea why it says $I \theta = -i \theta$ and not $I \theta = i \theta$?

NB: It is not a typo, the author repeats this several times.

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What paper? Some more context would probably be helpful. –  Micah Aug 12 at 19:44
    
I don't think it will help, but here it is: see top of p.16 in malkoun.org/malkoun_thesis.pdf –  Seub Aug 12 at 19:51

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