Here is a funny exercise $$\sin(x - y) \sin(x + y) = (\sin x - \sin y)(\sin x + \sin y).$$ (If you prove it don't publish it here please). Do you have similar examples?

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Maybe a moderator should put the zeta ones together since there are three already? – anon Nov 3 '10 at 22:29
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Perhaps this should be a community wiki question. – Nuno Nov 3 '10 at 22:31
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This is related. – J. M. Nov 3 '10 at 22:35
Also this $\cos(x - y) \cos(x + y) = (\cos x - \cos y)(\cos x + \cos y) $ holds ;) – Foool Nov 4 '10 at 8:38
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@Debanjan: $\exp$ = exponential function - I thought you were joking so I gave you another joke:) (because the first identity of yours is obviously wrong looking at $x=y=0$). – AD. Nov 4 '10 at 14:35
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26 Answers

up vote 42 down vote accepted

$$\int_0^1\frac{\mathrm{d}x}{x^x}=\sum_{k=1}^\infty \frac1{k^k}$$

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I had to do something about my accept range :) – AD. 1 hour ago
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$$\left(\sum\limits_{k=1}^n k\right)^2=\sum\limits_{k=1}^nk^3 .$$

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$$\frac{1}{\sin(2\pi/7)} + \frac{1}{\sin(3\pi/7)} = \frac{1}{\sin(\pi/7)}$$

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Machin's Formula: \begin{eqnarray} \frac{\pi}{4} = 4 \arctan \frac{1}{5} - \arctan \frac{1}{239}. \end{eqnarray}

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\begin{eqnarray} 1^{3} + 2^{3} + 2^{3} + 2^{3} + 4^{3} + 4^{3} + 4^{3} + 8^{3} = (1 + 2 + 2 + 2 + 4 + 4 + 4 + 8)^{2} \end{eqnarray} More generally, let $D_{k} = ${ $d$ } be the set of unitary divisors of a positive integer $k$, and let $\mathsf{d}^{*} \colon \mathbb{N} \to \mathbb{N}$ denote the number-of-unitary-divisors (arithmetic) function. Then \begin{eqnarray} \sum_{d \in D} \mathsf{d}^{*}(d)^{3} = \left( \sum_{d \in D} \mathsf{d}^{*}(d) \right)^{2} \end{eqnarray}

Note that $\mathsf{d}^{*}(k) = 2^{\omega(k)}$, where $\omega(k)$ is the number distinct prime divisors of $k$.

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The Frobenius automorphism

$$(x + y)^p = x^p + y^p$$

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Ah, this is one identity which comes into use for proving the Euler's Partition Theorem. The identity is as follows: $$ (1+x)(1+x^{2})(1+x^{3}) \cdots = \frac{1}{(1-x)(1-x^{3})(1-x^{5}) \cdots}$$

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Well, i don't know whether to classify this as funny or surprising, but ok it's worth posting.

  • Let $(X,\tau)$ be a topological space and let $A \subset X$ . By iteratively applying operations of closure and complemention, one cannot produce more than 14 disjoint sets. It's called as the Kuratowski's Closure complement problem.
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$$ \infty! = \sqrt{2 \pi} $$

It comes from the zeta function.

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Can you help me understand $\infty!$? I don't know what to make of it. – a little don Nov 4 '10 at 0:55
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@don: it's $\exp(-\zeta^{\prime}(0))$, where $\zeta^{\prime}(z)$ is formally $-\sum_{k=1}^\infty \frac{\ln\;k}{k^z}$ – J. M. Nov 4 '10 at 5:01
@a little don, You can read about it here katlas.math.toronto.edu/drorbn/MathBlog/2008-11/one/… – anon Nov 4 '10 at 17:29
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$\displaystyle\big(a^2+b^2\big)\cdot\big(c^2+d^2\big)=\big(ac \mp bd\big)^2+\big(ad \pm bc\big)^2$

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$(a^2+b^2)\cdot(c^2+d^2)$ is obviously $c^4+c^2d^2$ – muntoo Apr 18 '11 at 2:30
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$c^2(c^2+d^2)$??... what do you mean? – Neves Apr 18 '11 at 13:43
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$a^2+b^2=c^2$ – muntoo Apr 18 '11 at 16:06
There are also the related Lagrange's identity and the corresponding one for eight squares. – Yuval Filmus Nov 16 '11 at 13:28
The Brahmagupta-Fibonacci identity. – The Chaz May 1 at 5:17
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\[\sqrt{n}^{\log n}=n^{\log \sqrt{n}}\]

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$a^{\log b} = b^{\log a}$ for a and b at least 1. – wok Nov 30 '10 at 10:03
Yeah, I'm sure there's a zillion related identities and generalisations (and I should probably be more careful about the domain of n). But this one in particular came up in my research and I thought it was funny -- I couldn't decide whether or not to write $\sqrt{n}^{\log n}$ or $n^{\log \sqrt{n}}$. – Douglas S. Stones Nov 30 '10 at 10:22
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You should have written $\sqrt{n^{\log n}}$ – ypercube Feb 25 '11 at 22:13
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$$ \sum\limits_{n=1}^{\infty} n = 1 + 2 +3 + \cdots \text{ad inf.} = - \frac{1}{12}$$

Now doesn't this sound funny. You can also see many more on http://terrytao.wordpress.com/2010/04/10/the-euler-maclaurin-formula-bernoulli-numbers-the-zeta-function-and-real-variable-analytic-continuation/

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What am I missing here? – Fernando Martin Nov 6 '10 at 5:42
@fmartin: it's $\zeta(-1)$, which can be shown to be expressible in terms of Bernoulli numbers. – J. M. Nov 8 '10 at 0:55
@J.M.: I still fail to see how an infinite summation of positive numbers can result in a negative number. – Fernando Martin Nov 15 '10 at 23:26
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@fmartin: I agree it's counterintuitive; properly explaining this mathematical joke requires a foray into complex analysis (the magic words are "analytic continuation"), which I'll leave to more eloquent users to explain. – J. M. Nov 16 '10 at 7:05
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It's particularly a string theory joke, since this is the trick they use to regularize certain sums in their theories. That's how they arrive at 26 dimensions (in non-supersymmetric theories), because the regularization only works for that many dimensions. I suppose the argument works in the same way in supersymmetric theories, but they then get 10 dimensions. – Raskolnikov Nov 27 '10 at 11:25
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\begin{eqnarray} \sum_{i_1 = 0}^{n-k} \, \sum_{i_2 = 0}^{n-k-i_1} \cdots \sum_{i_k = 0}^{n-k-i_1 - \cdots - i_{k-1}} 1 = \binom{n}{k} \end{eqnarray}

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Two related integrals:

$$\int_0^\infty\sin\;x\quad\mathrm{d}x=1$$

$$\int_0^\infty\ln\;x\;\sin\;x\quad \mathrm{d}x=-\gamma$$

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can you give a hint for those of us who don't see it? :) – anon Nov 3 '10 at 22:48
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They are Abel-summable integrals; e.g. the first one is properly interpreted as $\lim_{\epsilon\to 0}\int\exp(-\epsilon x)\sin\;x\quad \mathrm{d}x$ – J. M. Nov 3 '10 at 22:53
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$$\sec^2(x)+\csc^2(x)=\sec^2(x)\csc^2(x)$$

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Is the natural logarithm function, or the exponential function related to this? – Doug Spoonwood Feb 13 at 3:24
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@Doug Spoonwood: If you multiply both sides by $\sin^2(x)\cos^2(x)$ you get the Pythagorean identity. Whether that's related to logarithm/exponential, I don't know. Just a test question I gave my students that I thought looked neat. – Joe Johnson 126 Feb 13 at 14:15
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\begin{eqnarray} \zeta(0) = \sum_{n \geq 1} 1 = -\frac{1}{2} \end{eqnarray}

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\begin{eqnarray} \sum_{k = 0}^{\lfloor q - q/p) \rfloor} \left \lfloor \frac{p(q - k)}{q} \right \rfloor = \sum_{k = 1}^{q} \left \lfloor \frac{kp}{q} \right \rfloor \end{eqnarray}

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Let $f$ be a symbol with the property that $f^n = n!$. Consider $d_n$, the number of ways of putting $n$ letters in $n$ envelopes so that no letter gets to the right person (aka derangements). Many people initially think that $d_n = (n-1)! = f^{n-1}$ (the first object has $n-1$ legal locations, the second $n-2$, ...). The correct answer isn't that different actually:

$d_n = (f-1)^n$.

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Parallelogram

$$\left|z+z'\right|^{2}+\left|z-z'\right|^{2}=2\times\left(\left|z\right|^{2}+\left|z'\right|^{2}\right)$$

The sum of the squares of the sides equals the sum of the squares of the diagonals.

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$$\large{1,741,725 = 1^7 + 7^7 + 4^7 + 1^7 + 7^7 + 2^7 + 5^7}$$

and

$$\large{111,111,111 \times 111,111,111 = 12,345,678,987,654,321}$$

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M.V Subbarao's identity: an integer n>22 is a prime number iff it satisfies,

$$n\sigma(n)\equiv 2 \pmod {\phi(n)}$$

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What is 42?

$$ 6 \times 9 = 42 \text{ base } 13 $$ I always knew that there is something wrong with this universe.

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Shouldn't that be $6\times 9=42\mod 12$? – Joel Reyes Noche Feb 6 at 11:48
@JoelReyesNoche $6\times 9 =54 = 4\times 13 +2$ from here – draks Feb 6 at 12:02
So you mean base 13 and not mod 13. – Joel Reyes Noche Feb 7 at 1:33
@JoelReyesNoche Right, sorry, I changed it, thx – draks Feb 7 at 7:56
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Considering the main branches

$$i^i = \exp\left(-\frac{\pi}{2}\right)$$

$$\root i \of i = \exp\left(\frac{\pi}{2}\right) $$

And $$ \frac{4}{\pi } = \displaystyle 1 + \frac{1}{{3 +\displaystyle \frac{{{2^2}}}{{5 + \displaystyle\frac{{{3^2}}}{{7 +\displaystyle \frac{{{4^2}}}{{9 +\displaystyle \frac{{{n^2}}}{{\left( {2n + 1} \right) + \cdots }}}}}}}}}} $$

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$$ \sin \theta \cdot \sin \bigl(60 - \theta \bigr) \cdot \sin \bigl(60 + \theta \bigr) = \frac{1}{4} \sin 3\theta$$

$$ \cos \theta \cdot \cos \bigl(60 - \theta \bigr) \cdot \cos \bigl(60 + \theta \bigr) = \frac{1}{4} \cos 3\theta$$

$$ \tan \theta \cdot \tan \bigl(60 - \theta \bigr) \cdot \tan \bigl(60 + \theta \bigr) = \tan 3\theta $$

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See also the comments here: math.stackexchange.com/q/8385/1242 – Hans Lundmark Nov 4 '10 at 8:53
Not much idea what you want me to understand ? :) – Foool Nov 4 '10 at 9:38
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I just wanted to mention that your first identity is equivalent to the case $n=3$ of the formula for $\sin nx$ given there. (Just replace $\sin(60^{\circ}-\theta)$ by $\sin(\theta+120^{\circ})$.) – Hans Lundmark Nov 4 '10 at 9:56
Thanks, duly noted :) – Foool Nov 4 '10 at 9:58
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considering your first two identities the thirth should be $$ \tan \theta \cdot \tan \bigl(60 - \theta \bigr) \cdot \tan \bigl(60 + \theta \bigr) = \tan 3\theta $$ – Neves Mar 6 '11 at 16:08
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$\lnot$(A$\land$B)=($\lnot$A$\lor$$\lnot$B) and $\lnot$(A$\lor$B)=($\lnot$A$\land$$\lnot$B), because they mean that negation is an "equal form".

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I actually think currying is really cool:

$$(A \times B) \to C \; \simeq \; A \to (B \to C)$$

Though not strictly an identity, but an isomorphism.

When I met it for the first time it seemed to be a bit odd but it is so convenient and neat. At least in programming.

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