Given a formal language L, is $L \subset L^*$ or is $L \subseteq L^*$?
To give context, I am tasked with proving whether or not there exists a language such that $(L^*)^c = (L^c)^*$. Assuming the logic behind my proof is correct, I've concluded that if $L \neq L^*$ then $(L^*)^c$ cannot equal $(L^c)^*$. I won't go into my proof as it's the not primary subject of my question (that is, unless someone is interested enough to check my work).
Thanks for any assistance!