Mathematics Stack Exchange is a question and answer site for people studying math at any level and professionals in related fields. Join them; it only takes a minute:

Sign up
Here's how it works:
  1. Anybody can ask a question
  2. Anybody can answer
  3. The best answers are voted up and rise to the top

Is it correct to squeeze $\frac{3n}{(n+1)!}$ between $0$ and $\frac{1}{n!}$? The proposed left side makes logical sense to me, however bounding the right hand side to prove the limit goes to $0$ is giving me a bit more trouble.

share|cite|improve this question
Write $3n=3(n+1)-3$. – Adam Hughes Jul 7 '14 at 5:22
up vote 7 down vote accepted

Note that since $n<n+1$, one have that $$ 0\le \frac{3n}{(n+1)!} \le \frac{3}{n!}$$ Using Squeeze Theorem, it can be easily seen that the limit is zero.

share|cite|improve this answer

Your Answer


By posting your answer, you agree to the privacy policy and terms of service.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.