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The fact that there are $\dfrac{p+1}{2}$ quadratic residues seem to me to help solving the question, but I don't know how to go on from that point. Could you give me any hint?

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Yes, $m$ and $n$ are any integers which satisfy $(m,p)=(n,p)=1$. – Math.StackExchange Jun 7 '14 at 5:30
I will rewrite the question to make it clear. I'm sorry! – Math.StackExchange Jun 7 '14 at 5:33
I answered this before, here – i707107 Jun 7 '14 at 5:37
If $c\not\equiv0,1$ then multiply by $c^{-1}$. Handle $c\equiv0$ separately. – blue Jun 7 '14 at 5:44
This statement is a private more General. Formula more General there… – individ Jun 7 '14 at 12:01

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