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Give $a_{1}\geq a_{2}\geq ...\geq a_{n}> 0$ and a positive integer m . Find the minimum value of the following the inequality:

$\left ( a_{1}+a_{2}+...+a_{n} \right )\left ( \frac{1}{a_{1}^{m}}+ \frac{1}{a_{2}^{m}}+...+\frac{1}{a_{n}^{m}}\right )$

Please help me to solve the above problem. I try but not success. Thank you very much.

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  • $\begingroup$ Is $m$ positive? $\endgroup$
    – Macavity
    Jun 2, 2014 at 17:05
  • $\begingroup$ yeah. m is positive $\endgroup$
    – Blue sky
    Jun 2, 2014 at 17:09
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    $\begingroup$ "find the minimum value of the folowing inequality" But youve stated a product.. did you mean $(a_1+a_2+...+a_n)\geq(\frac{1}{a_1^m}+\frac{1}{a_2^m}+...+\frac{1}{a_n^m})$?? $\endgroup$
    – cirpis
    Jun 2, 2014 at 17:28
  • $\begingroup$ If $m>1$ just take all $a_i =a \to \infty$ to show there is no minimum. $\endgroup$
    – Macavity
    Jun 2, 2014 at 18:10

1 Answer 1

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Let us define $$ F_m(a_1,\ldots,a_n)=\left(\sum_{k=1}^na_k\right)\left(\sum_{k=1}^na_k^{-m}\right). $$

  • If $m>1$ we have $$\lim_{x\to\infty}F_m(x,\ldots,x)=\lim_{x\to\infty}(n^2x^{1-m})=0$$ So, $\inf F_m=0$, in this case. (Note that the minimum in not attained here).
  • If $m=1$, then by th Cauchy schwarz inequality we have $$n^2=\left(\sum_{k=1}^na_k\cdot \frac{1}{a_k}\right)^2\leq \left(\sum_{k=1}^na_k\right)\left(\sum_{k=1}^na_k^{-1}\right)=F_1(a_1,\ldots,a_n) $$ with equality if $a_1=a_2=\ldots=a_n$. So, $\min F_1=n^2~$ in this case.
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