Mathematics Stack Exchange is a question and answer site for people studying math at any level and professionals in related fields. It's 100% free, no registration required.

Sign up
Here's how it works:
  1. Anybody can ask a question
  2. Anybody can answer
  3. The best answers are voted up and rise to the top

I am reading the following paper:

It comes to the following claim: If $p$ is a prime number, and $Z$ is a multivariate polynomial, then:

$Z$ is zero modulo $p^{e+1}$ iff Z is zero modulo $P$ and $Z \choose p$ is zero modulo $p^e$ where $Z \choose p $ denotes the sum of all possible products of $p$ terms from $Z$ (we avoid using coefficients in writing $Z$ as sum of monomial terms, and repeat terms if necessary)

I fail to see why this is correct.

The "modulo P" is most likely a typo and they mean "modulo p", but P is used in the paper to describes polynomials, so maybe I'm missing something.

share|cite|improve this question
Can you give the page and section numbers for the claim? – Srivatsan Nov 8 '11 at 16:35
Lemma 1, page 5. Thanks. – Gadi A Nov 9 '11 at 8:36

Your Answer


By posting your answer, you agree to the privacy policy and terms of service.

Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.