I would like to find the apothem of a regular pentagon. It follows from
$$\cos \dfrac{2\pi }{5}=\dfrac{-1+\sqrt{5}}{4}.$$
But how can this be proved (geometrically or trigonometrically)?
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I would like to find the apothem of a regular pentagon. It follows from $$\cos \dfrac{2\pi }{5}=\dfrac{-1+\sqrt{5}}{4}.$$ But how can this be proved (geometrically or trigonometrically)? |
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Since $x := \cos \frac{2 \pi}{5} = \frac{z + z^{-1}}{2}$ where $z:=e^{\frac{2 i \pi}{5}}$, and $1+z+z^2+z^3+z^4=0$ (for $z^5=1$ and $z \neq 1$), $x^2+\frac{x}{2}-\frac{1}{4}=0$, and voilà. |
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Consider a $\triangle ABC$ with $AB=1$, $\mathrm{m}\angle A=\frac{\pi}{5}$ and $\mathrm{m}\angle B=\mathrm{m}\angle C=\frac{2\pi}{5}$, and point $D$ on $\overline{AC}$ such that $\overline{BD}$ bisects $\angle ABC$. Now, $\mathrm{m}\angle CBD=\frac{\pi}{5}$ and $\mathrm{m}\angle BDC=\frac{2\pi}{5}$, so $\triangle ABC\sim\triangle BCD$. Also note that $\triangle ABD$ is isosceles so that $BC=BD=AD$. Let $x=BC=BD=AD$. From the similar triangles, $\frac{AB}{BC}=\frac{BC}{CD}$ or $\frac{1}{x}=\frac{x}{1-x}$, so $1-x=x^2$ and $x=\frac{\sqrt{5}-1}{2}$ (the other solution is negative and lengths cannot be negative). Now, apply the Law of Cosines to $\triangle ABC$: $$\begin{align} \cos\frac{2\pi}{5}=\cos C&=\frac{a^2+b^2-c^2}{2ab} \\ &=\frac{(\frac{\sqrt{5}-1}{2})^2+1^2-1^2}{2\cdot\frac{\sqrt{5}-1}{2}\cdot 1} \\ &=\frac{\frac{3-\sqrt{5}}{2}}{\sqrt{5}-1} \\ &=\frac{-1+\sqrt{5}}{4}. \end{align}$$ |
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How about combinatorially? This follows from the following two facts.
The first can be proven by direct computation (although it also somehow falls out of the theory of quantum groups) and the second is a nice combinatorial argument which I will leave as an exercise. I discuss some of the surrounding issues in this blog post. |
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Look up the "construction of a regular pentagon" using the straightedge and compass. If you keep track of each step in this construction, you will find that the angle $72^\circ$ comes up in a few places, and this expression follows from it. It's a fun exercise-- you should do it. |
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Note that $$2\cdot \dfrac{2\pi}{5} + 3\cdot \dfrac{2\pi}{5} = 2\pi,$$ therefore $$\cos\left(2\cdot \dfrac{2\pi}{5}\right) = \cos\left(3\cdot \dfrac{2\pi}{5}\right).$$ Put $\cos \dfrac{2\pi}{5} = x$. Using the formulas \begin{equation*} \cos 2x = 2\cos^2 x - 1, \quad \cos 3x = 4\cos^3 x - 3\cos x, \end{equation*} we have \begin{equation*} 4x^3 - 2x^2 -3x + 1 = 0 \Leftrightarrow (x - 1)(4x^2 + 2x - 1) = 0. \end{equation*} Because $\cos \dfrac{2\pi}{5} \neq 1$, we get \begin{equation*} 4x^2 + 2x - 1 = 0. \end{equation*} Another way, $\cos \dfrac{2\pi}{5} > 0$, then $\cos \dfrac{2\pi}{5} = \dfrac{-1 + \sqrt{5}}{2}$. |
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