# How to prove that $\lim\limits_{x\to0}\frac{\sin x}x=1$?

How can one prove the statement $$\lim\limits_{x\to 0}\frac{\sin x}x=1$$ without using the Taylor series of $\sin$, $\cos$ and $\tan$? Best would be a geometrical solution.

This is homework. In my math class, we are about to prove that $\sin$ is continuous. We found out, that proving the above statement is enough for proving the continuity of $\sin$, but I can't find out how. Any help is appreciated.

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I assume you mean 0, not infinity? – mixedmath Oct 23 '11 at 16:24
@mixedmath Sorry. That was indeed a typo. – FUZxxl Oct 23 '11 at 16:27
l'Hôpital's rule is easiest: $\lim\limits_{x\to0}\sin x = 0$ and $\lim\limits_{x\to0}x = 0$, so $\lim\limits_{x\to 0}\frac{\sin x}x = \lim\limits_{x\to 0}\frac{\cos x}1 = 1$ – Joren Oct 23 '11 at 20:41
@Joren: I'm extremely curious how will you prove then that $\sin ' x = \cos x$ – Ilya Oct 24 '11 at 9:10
@FUZx44xl: sure, but to be fare you first prove that $\sin x\sim x$ with $x\to 0$. Geometrically – Ilya Oct 24 '11 at 15:42

The area of $\triangle ABC$ is $\frac{1}{2}\sin(x)$. The area of the colored wedge is $\frac{1}{2}x$, and the area of $\triangle ABD$ is $\frac{1}{2}\tan(x)$. By inclusion, we get $$\frac{1}{2}\tan(x)\ge\frac{1}{2}x\ge\frac{1}{2}\sin(x)\tag{1}$$ Dividing $(1)$ by $\frac{1}{2}\sin(x)$ and taking reciprocals, we get $$\cos(x)\le\frac{\sin(x)}{x}\le1\tag{2}$$ Since $\frac{\sin(x)}{x}$ and $\cos(x)$ are even functions, $(2)$ is valid for any non-zero $x$ between $-\frac{\pi}{2}$ and $\frac{\pi}{2}$. Furthermore, since $\cos(x)$ is continuous near $0$ and $\cos(0) = 1$, we get that $$\lim_{x\to0}\frac{\sin(x)}{x}=1\tag{3}$$ Also, dividing $(2)$ by $\cos(x)$, we get that $$1\le\frac{\tan(x)}{x}\le\sec(x)\tag{4}$$ Since $\sec(x)$ is continuous near $0$ and $\sec(0) = 1$, we get that $$\lim_{x\to0}\frac{\tan(x)}{x}=1\tag{5}$$

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Hm... But now, how to prove that $\cos$ is continuous? (Read the question!) – FUZxxl Oct 23 '11 at 18:04
Do my homework! Note that $(1)$ says that for $0\le x\le\frac{\pi}{2}$ we have $0\le\sin(x)\le x$; therefore, $\lim\limits_{x\to0^+}\sin(x)=0$. Then $\cos(x)=1-2\sin^2(x/2)$ should finish the job. – robjohn Oct 23 '11 at 18:37
Thank you very much. I know that proverb, but I really wasn't able to find that out on my own. – FUZxxl Oct 23 '11 at 18:41
From your comment, I wasn't expecting that you could find it on your own, but "Read the question!" seemed a bit rough around the edges. – robjohn Oct 23 '11 at 19:04
@Mike: I agree that there is a bit of faith that goes into the mix at some early stages, but I think this is one that a little bit of hand-waving can make believable. – robjohn Oct 23 '11 at 23:40

You should first prove that for $x > 0$ small that $\sin x < x < \tan x$. Then, dividing by $x$ you get $${ \sin x \over x} < 1$$ and rearranging $1 < {\tan x \over x} = {\sin x \over x \cos x }$ $$\cos x < {\sin x \over x}.$$ Taking $x \rightarrow 0^+$ you apply the squeeze theorem. For $x < 0$ and small use that $\sin(-x) = -x$ so that ${\sin(-x) \over -x} = {\sin x \over x}$.

As far as why the first inequality I said is true, you can do this completely from triangles but I don't know how to draw the pictures here.

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But how to prove that $\sin x<x<\tan x$? – FUZxxl Oct 23 '11 at 16:31
It is in the picture. The definition of radians makes the picture above true. Maybe that is worth mentioning: this limit explicitly depends on "$x$" being measured in radians. – tkr Oct 23 '11 at 16:33
Okay. I had a look at the link Yuval provided. That proof works. Anyway, thanks for the effort. – FUZxxl Oct 23 '11 at 16:34
This is a strange picture! Normally you want the $tan(\theta)$ side to be parallel to the $sin(\theta)$ side. – Steve D Oct 23 '11 at 17:36
If you make $\tan(\theta)$ parallel then you need to make the points $S$ and $Q$ the same. For whatever reason, this is the proof I like the most because it relates the tangent line at the point on the circle to the value we call "tangent". To each his own... – tkr Oct 23 '11 at 18:22

It depends on your definition of the sine function. I would suggest checking out the geometric proof in ProofWiki.

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 @robjohn: see, I like the picture under this link much more because it uses $\theta$ as an arclength instead of using $\theta/2$ as an area. – Mike Oct 23 '11 at 22:51 +1, nice site - What is the length BC? – Emmad Kareem Oct 24 '11 at 5:34

Usually calculus textbooks do this using geometric arguments followed by squeezing.

Here's an Euler-esque way of looking at it---not a "proof" as that term is usually understood today, but still worth knowing about.

Let $\theta$ be the length of an arc along the circle of unit radius centered at $(0,0)$, from the point $(1,0)$ in a counterclockwise direction to some point $(\cos\theta,\sin\theta)$ on the circle. Then of course $\sin\theta$ is the height of the latter point above the $x$-axis. Now imagine what happens if $\theta$ is an infinitely small positive number. Then the arc is just an infinitely short vertical line, and the height of the endpoint above the $x$-axis is just the length of the arc. I.e. when $\theta$ is an infinitely small number, then $\sin\theta$ is the same as $\theta$. It follows that when $\theta$ is an infinitely small nonzero number, then $\dfrac{\sin\theta}{\theta}=1$.

That is how Euler viewed the matter. See his book on differential calculus.

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Here you may see an elementary approach that starts from a very interesting result, see this problem. All you need is a bit of imagination. When we take $\lim_{n\rightarrow\infty} \frac{n\sin(\frac{\pi}{n})}{1+\sin(\frac{\pi}{n})}$ we may notice that we have infinitely many circles surrounding the unit circle with infinitely small diameters that lastly perfectly approximate the length of the unit circle when having it there infinity times . Therefore when multiplying n by the radius under the limit to infinity we get π. Let's denote $\frac{\pi}{n}$ by x.

$$\lim_{x\rightarrow0}\frac{\pi\sin(x)}{x(1+\sin(x))}={\pi}\Rightarrow\lim_{x\rightarrow0}\frac{\sin(x)}{x(1+\sin(x))}=1\Rightarrow\lim_{x\rightarrow0}\frac{\sin(x)}{x}=1$$

The proof is complete.

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I think that all proofs above are beautiful but I cannot see why we have to complicate it. We know that for small values of x that sinx is approximately equal to x. If now let x in sinx go to zero it means that sinx goes to x. That is, our "error" or approximation goes to zero. We divide this by x and we have 1. Is not this valid?

Only thing is that this does not look like the typical proof.

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How do we know that sin x is equal to x for small values? – FUZxxl Feb 23 at 22:09
It is a well known fact that $sinx\sim x$ for small angles x. And if we then let $x\rightarrow 0$, then the "error" $\rightarrow 0$. You can see that by drawing a tangent y=x and y=sinx in the same graph. – AdamYac Feb 24 at 0:17
Seeing by drawing does not count as a proof. The fact that $\lim_{x\to 0} \frac{\sin(x)}{x}=1$ is precisely why we know that $\sin(x) \approx x$ for small $x$. – genepeer Feb 24 at 0:27
Alright,thanks. I've learned the other way around without any proof so that's why I'm asking. – AdamYac Feb 24 at 0:31

I am not sure if it counts as proof, but I have seen this done by a High Schooler.

In the given picture above, $\displaystyle 2n \text{ EJ} = 2nR \sin\left( \frac{\pi}{n } \right ) = \text{ perimeter of polygon }$.

$\displaystyle \lim_{n\to \infty }2nR \sin\left( \frac{\pi}{n } \right ) = \lim_{n\to \infty } (\text{ perimeter of polygon }) = 2 \pi R \implies \lim_{n\to \infty}\frac{\sin\left( \frac{\pi}{n } \right )}{\left( \frac{\pi}{n } \right )} = 1$ and let $\frac{\pi}{n} = x$.

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