Let $A\in \mathbf{R}$. How can I show that $\exists$ a measurable set $B\supseteq A$ such that $\mu^\ast(A)=\mu^\ast(B)$?
I know there is a $G_\delta$ set such that $\mu^\ast(A)=\mu^\ast(G)$. Can I take $B$ to the a $G_\delta$?
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Let $A\in \mathbf{R}$. How can I show that $\exists$ a measurable set $B\supseteq A$ such that $\mu^\ast(A)=\mu^\ast(B)$? I know there is a $G_\delta$ set such that $\mu^\ast(A)=\mu^\ast(G)$. Can I take $B$ to the a $G_\delta$? |
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