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I am stuck with the question below,

Prove by mathematical induction that $n<n!$ for $n>2$.

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? ${}{}{}{}{}{}{}$ –  mixedmath Oct 15 '11 at 15:32
"The question below" isn't here. –  Michael Hardy Oct 15 '11 at 15:37
@Akito: You didn't ask a question. –  Eric Naslund Oct 15 '11 at 15:49
Akito was missing the $'s in his LaTeX. –  Mike Wierzbicki Oct 15 '11 at 15:58

2 Answers 2

First, for $n=3$ you have $3< 3!=6 $. Suppose that for some $k$ it holds that $k<k!$ then $$ (k+1)! = (k+1)k!>(k+1)k\geq k+1 $$ since $k\geq 3$. Could you please tell which step is unclear to you in this proof? By elaborating on it maybe we can learn how to use induction.

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Is the ''suppose it's true for all $k\leq n$'' necessary in the way you proved it? Seems you only need to suppose it's true for k to prove it's true for k+1. That is, is strong induction necessary for this? –  Mike Wierzbicki Oct 15 '11 at 16:06
You mean to say "Suppose that for all $n$ s.t. $3 \leq n \leq k$ it holds that $n < n!$. That is, the statement is true provided the value of the argument is at most $k$, then you show it holds for $k+1$. However, Mike is correct that strong induction isn't exactly needed here (though there's nothing preventing you from using it if you so choose). –  Austin Mohr Oct 15 '11 at 16:11
@MikeWierzbicki: thank you, that was too strong –  Ilya Oct 15 '11 at 16:15
The thing written above is the correct answer. I don't know where all these comments come from. –  Applied mathematician Nov 27 '12 at 9:08

If this is homework and the professor specifically said to use induction, then disregard this answer, I suppose. Otherwise, the statement can be proven directly without induction.

Given any $n \geq 3$, we can write $n! = n(n-1)!$ and be confident that $n-1 \geq 2$ (so we aren't making inappropriate use of $0!$). From this expression, it is clear that $n! > n$, since $n!$ is equal to $n$ times some number strictly greater than 1.

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That's actually an induction proof in disguise. Otherwise, how can you be sure that $(n-1)!$ is strictly greater than 1? Either you can say it's an induction hypothesis, or you need to prove it as a lemma (which itself must be by induction). –  Henning Makholm Oct 15 '11 at 17:53
@HenningMakholm: $(n-1)!>1$ is not equivalent to $(n-1)!>(n-1)$ so the proof is a bit different from the induction. –  Ilya Oct 15 '11 at 18:22
@Gortaur, no it is not equivalent. But clearly follows from $(n-1)!>n-1$ (since $n\ge3$ anyway), and it is not appreciably easier to prove on its own either, so it just seems like a detour. –  Henning Makholm Oct 15 '11 at 18:28
@HenningMakholm: $(n-1)!>1$ follows from $(n-1)!>n-1$ but not vice versa. I mean that he deduces like this: $n! = n(n-1)!>n$ only using $(n-1)!>1$ rather than more 'stronger' statement $(n-1)!>n-1$. Though, that's hard for me to understand what is simpler here. Proofs here are quite indistinguishable –  Ilya Oct 15 '11 at 19:07

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