Let $X$ be an arbitrary infinite set, can we always find a bijective map $T: X\rightarrow X$ such that for any finite (nonempty) subset $F\subset X$, $T(F)\neq F$ ? This question is related to another post.
This is easy enough when $X$ is finite or countably infinite. In the general case I think it requires the Axiom of Choice. Given AC we know $X\simeq X\times \mathbb Z$ for any infinite $X$, and $X\times\mathbb Z$ can be made to satisfy your property by letting $T$ shift each copy of $\mathbb Z$ one position to the right (or left).
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