# Probably simple, but i don't get it

Now I was doing some physics and I got to this equation, task is solved but i don't get this part... So is it possible to get for

$$\frac{m_1(v^2_1-w_1^2)}{m_1(v_1+w_1)}=w_2$$ to $v_1-w_1=w_2$.

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$$\frac{m_1 (v_1^2 - w_1^2)}{m_1 (v_1 + w_1)} = \frac{m_1 (v_1 - w_1)(v_1 + w_1)}{m_1 (v_1 + w_1)} = v_1 - w_1$$