Take the 2-minute tour ×
Mathematics Stack Exchange is a question and answer site for people studying math at any level and professionals in related fields. It's 100% free, no registration required.

If time were infinitely divisible then an infinite number of 'seconds' would comprise both one minute and two minutes. But one minute does not equal two minutes. So, why are two minutes and one minute not of equal duration?

share|improve this question

closed as off-topic by Claude Leibovici, Tom Oldfield, rschwieb, Yiorgos S. Smyrlis, Lost1 Feb 17 at 16:08

This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:

  • "This question is not about mathematics, within the scope defined in the help center." – Claude Leibovici, Tom Oldfield, rschwieb, Yiorgos S. Smyrlis, Lost1
If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.

You have two different measures of 'size'. –  Hayden Feb 17 at 15:41
I suggest you read the 2nd chapter of Bergson's Time and Free Will: An Essay on the Immediate Data of Consciousness –  G.T.R Feb 17 at 15:45
add comment

1 Answer 1

up vote 4 down vote accepted

In the field of real numbers, $1$ and $2$ are both "infinitely divisible". Why then $1\neq 2$?

Phrased slightly differently, it's not because there is a bijection from $[0,1]$ to $[0,2]$ that "$[0,1]=[0,2]$"; they are isomorphic, not equal. Incidentally, $[0,1]$ is also isomorphic to $\mathbb{R}$, for that matter.

share|improve this answer
Thank you. That was helpful. –  Hal Feb 17 at 16:43
add comment

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.