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If time were infinitely divisible then an infinite number of 'seconds' would comprise both one minute and two minutes. But one minute does not equal two minutes. So, why are two minutes and one minute not of equal duration?

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closed as off-topic by Claude Leibovici, Tom Oldfield, rschwieb, Yiorgos S. Smyrlis, Lost1 Feb 17 at 16:08

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You have two different measures of 'size'. –  Hayden Feb 17 at 15:41
    
I suggest you read the 2nd chapter of Bergson's Time and Free Will: An Essay on the Immediate Data of Consciousness –  G.T.R Feb 17 at 15:45
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1 Answer 1

up vote 4 down vote accepted

In the field of real numbers, $1$ and $2$ are both "infinitely divisible". Why then $1\neq 2$?

Phrased slightly differently, it's not because there is a bijection from $[0,1]$ to $[0,2]$ that "$[0,1]=[0,2]$"; they are isomorphic, not equal. Incidentally, $[0,1]$ is also isomorphic to $\mathbb{R}$, for that matter.

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Thank you. That was helpful. –  Hal Feb 17 at 16:43
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