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If $a,b,c,d\in\mathbb N$ and $a^2+b^2\mid ac+bd$, can it be true that $\gcd(a^2+b^2,c^2+d^2)=1$? or $3$? or $74$?

That problem is complicated. I've tried some approaches, but they're useless. E.g. if $$\gcd(a^2+b^2,c^2+d^2)=1$$ Then $$\gcd((a^2+b^2)(c^2+d^2),ac+bd)=\gcd(a^2+b^2,ac+bd)\gcd(c^2+d^2,ac+bd)$$ So it would be sufficient to show that this equality can't hold. But it won't work.

Also, if $\gcd(a,b)=1$, then $\gcd(a+b,a^2+b^2)=1$ or $2$. So it'd also be sufficient to prove that it can't be true that $$\gcd(a^2+b^2+c^2+d^2,(a^2+b^2)^2+(c^2+d^2)^2)$$ is $1$ or $2$, but you can see how desperate proving this would actually be.

I'm curious to see a solution. I'll see if you could think of one.

And it's a problem from the selection of people for the IMO $2013$ phase (not sure how to say it). I can't find a solution on the Internet. I think knowing how to solve this problem could help me in the future, so I've posted it here.

Thanks.

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Do you know Gaussian integer arithmetic? –  Bill Dubuque Feb 10 at 21:51
    
@BillDubuque I am not. I've also forgot to add that no calculus nor something similar can be used. –  mathh Feb 10 at 21:54
    
74 is certainly a possibility. –  John Habert Feb 10 at 21:55
    
and $3$ certainly is not. –  Hagen von Eitzen Feb 10 at 21:55
    
How can you tell? I'd like to see how you've found that out. –  mathh Feb 10 at 21:57

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