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Show that if $0\leq x < n, n \geq 1$, and $n\in\mathbb{N}$ then

$$ 0 \leq e^{-x} - \left( 1 - \frac{x}{n} \right)^n \leq \frac{x^2e^{-x}}{n}. $$

By using induction.

Progress: Decided to split the problem up into two parts, (i) and (ii).

(i) $ 0 \leq e^{-x} - \left ( 1- \frac{x}{n} \right ) ^ n $.

(i) $e^{-x} - \left ( 1- \frac{x}{n} \right ) ^ n \leq \frac{x^2e^{-x}}{n}.$

For part (i),

Base case: (n = 1)

We have

$$\begin{align} 1-x &\leq e^{-x} \\ e^{-x} +x -1 & \geq 0. \end{align}$$

Differentiating gives,

$$ \begin{align} \frac{d}{dy} \left ( e^{-x} +x -1 \right )& = -e^{-x} +1 \\ & \geq 0 \end{align}$$ for $0 \leq x <1$. Thus the function is non-decreasing on $\left[ 0,1 \right )$ which implies $e^{-x} + x -1 \geq 0 $ thus,$ 1-x \leq e^{-x}$ on the required interval. (my calc isn't very strong but I assume this is the right process to prove one function is $\geq$ another).

Induction step: Assume formula holds for some arbitrary positive integer $n=k$, that is $$0 \leq e^{-x} - \left( 1-\frac{x}{k} \right )^k$$ using this, we must now show that the formula holds for $n=k+1$, i.e.

$$ 0 \leq e^{-x} - \left ( 1- \frac{x}{k+1} \right ) ^{k+1}. $$

So how on earth do we use the induction step in get the required equation for $n=k+1?$

share|improve this question
    
Could you differentiate the equation? –  Sanath Feb 8 at 2:55
    
For $n=1$ show that $f(x)=e^{-x}-1+x \geq 0$ by showing $f(0)=0$, then take a derivative and show the function is increasing for $x>0$. Then use this idea for $g(x)=e^{-x}-1+x-x^2 e^{-x}$ –  Alex Feb 8 at 4:08
    
Is induction mandatory? The proof of the LHS inequality, for example, is direct without induction and quite uneasy to fit into one. –  Did Feb 9 at 8:55
    
Indeed, induction is required - the question is from an induction chapter in a number theory text :) –  liedora Feb 9 at 9:24

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