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In the proof of Theorem I(c) from this paper (pdf) (original zip), there is a proposition that says:

So by our choice of $g$ we get $\theta/p \mid \psi/p$ whence $\theta \mid \psi$.

(this is the 3rd complete sentence on the right-hand column of p. 204)

How do I use the "So by our choice of $g$ we get"? Why does $g$ not have any other degree? Why is the choice small as possible thus contravening c)?

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Your chances of getting an answer may increase considerably if you put a minimal amount of effort into stating your question clearly. That might include stating that you're referring to a paper before starting the question with "in the preliminaries section", and also placing word spacing and punctuation correctly. – joriki Sep 20 '11 at 14:28
    
And is it possible to find a proper reference to the paper instead of (or at least, in addition to) uploading a zip file? (I hate zip files. They invariably do not work for me. :=)) – Srivatsan Sep 20 '11 at 15:12
    
Agree with Srivatsan. Zip-file is too much effort. With the SW I have, I would first need to download the file to my computer, then unzip it, and only then I could take a look. Sorry, will not do. If I were sure this is about the kind of coding theory that I know about, I might unzip it. But even the notation is all Greek to me! So it may be source coding as opposed to channel coding? – Jyrki Lahtonen Sep 20 '11 at 17:40

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