I was reading a paper regarding using a logistic regression to predict an outcome of interest. In the paper the logit is given as
logit(p) = log[p/1-p] = b0 + b1*x1 + .... + bn*xn => Which is fine
but then p is given as
p = 1/exp[-(b0 + b1*x1 + .... bn*xn)] => Which I don't understand.
It should be p = 1/(1 + exp[-(b0 + b1*x1 + .... + bn*xn)]), then the probability will be between 0 and 1, right?
Thank you for your time.