Fix a finite group $G$, and look at all its irreducible representations/$\mathbb{C}$. It is said in Serre's book that "there cannot be any $\mathbb{C}$-linear relation between the matrix coefficients of these irreducible representations (of course we fix a set of bases first), because of the orthogonality formulas". I don't understand the quoted part. Can anyone explain that? I think I must be missing something obvious here.
Tell me more
×
Mathematics Stack Exchange is a question and answer site for
people studying math at any level and professionals in related fields. It's 100% free, no registration required.
|
Essentially because a set of pairwise orthgonal nonzero vectors must be linearly independent. Here orthogonality is with respect to a complex (sesquilinear) positive-definite inner product, and we can regard each matrix entry as a vector of length $|G|$. |
|||
|