Why does Bellman-Ford algorithm perform V-1 number of relaxation iterations?
I feel that it is correct when going through examples. But how do we explain it for the general case?
I have gone through the proof of correctness, and yeah, that is where the answer is, BUT what I am looking for is a simple explanation, not a mathematical proof.
I need a simple explanation in someone's own words.
I would really appreciate any effort made to help.