Mathematics Stack Exchange is a question and answer site for people studying math at any level and professionals in related fields. Join them; it only takes a minute:

Sign up
Here's how it works:
  1. Anybody can ask a question
  2. Anybody can answer
  3. The best answers are voted up and rise to the top

I have a question in which it asks to verify whether if the uniform distribution is normalized. For one, what does it mean some distribution is normalized. For two, how do we go about verifying whether a distribution is normalized or not.

share|cite|improve this question

closed as off-topic by arjafi Sep 20 '13 at 7:05

  • This question does not appear to be about math within the scope defined in the help center.
If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.

Thanks for the quick response. I understand that to normalize a random variable X is to (X-mean)/sd. This asks to verify uniform(a,b) is normalized. – Ada Sep 19 '13 at 23:26
Also asked on stats.SE where it has already received two answers. I have flagged it for closing. – Dilip Sarwate Sep 20 '13 at 3:14
Question was cross-posted to Cross Validated. – arjafi Sep 20 '13 at 7:05
@Ada: In the future, if you feel another Stack Exchange site is better suited for your question, please flag your question for moderator attention, expressing a desire to have it migrated to another specific Stack Exchange site. A moderator will then look into it, and if acceptable will migrate your question. Do not simply cross-post the question on multiple Stack Exchange sites. – arjafi Sep 20 '13 at 7:07
The answer provided by Christian Bueno is the correct one after confirming with the TA. I agree that there should only be one instance of this question, what should I do? – Ada Sep 21 '13 at 8:37

A normalized distribution is one in which when you integrate over the entire domain, you get $1$. It's basically a requirement that states that the likelihood that something happens is $1$. For example the function $f(x)=1$ for $0\leq x \leq 2$ is not normalized (the integral is $2$) but $g(x)=1/2$ for $0\leq x \leq 2$ is normalized (the integral is $1$).

share|cite|improve this answer
I don't think this is what is meant, especially in view of the statistics tag. – Dilip Sarwate Sep 20 '13 at 2:56

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.