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Let $F = \cup^{\infty}_{k=1} A_i$ where each $A_i$ is a closed set. Since $F$ is $F_\sigma$, every $F_\sigma$ set is measurable, and every measurable set is translation invariant, F is translation invariant. Because of this, $$F + y = \cup^{\infty}_{k=1} A_i+y$$ and hence the translation of $F$ is $F_\sigma$.


Here is my second try.

Let $A$ be a closed subset of $\mathbb{R}$. Since it is closed $\mathbb{R} \setminus A$ is open. That implies that there exists a countable collection of disjoint open intervals $\{I_k\}^{\infty}_{k=1}$ where $\mathbb{R} \setminus A = \cup^{\infty}_{k=1}I_k$. Now let us take the translation of $A$ with respect to $y$ as $$ A + y = \{ a + y : a \in A \}$$ It is closed if and only if the translation of every $I_k$ in $\{I_k\}^{\infty}_{k=1}$ is open with respect to the translation $y$.

Since every $F_\sigma$ set is the union of a countable set of closed sets, and its translation is the translation of each closed set, the translation of every $F_\sigma$ set in $\mathbb{R}$ is an $F_\sigma$ set.

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    $\begingroup$ $\{0\}$ is a measurable set that is not translation invariant. $\;$ $\endgroup$
    – user57159
    Sep 11, 2013 at 2:36
  • $\begingroup$ I'm pretty sure it is since it is a countable set and the measure of any countable set, whether finite or infinite, is 0. Also, its translation moves {0} to some point {y} if y is the translation number. Also in Royden, proposition 9 in section 2.3 states that the translate of a measurable set is measurable. $\endgroup$ Sep 11, 2013 at 2:45
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    $\begingroup$ Yes, the translate of a measurable set is always measurable. $\:$ However, it is not the case that every measurable set is translation invariant. $\;\;\;$ $\endgroup$
    – user57159
    Sep 11, 2013 at 2:47
  • $\begingroup$ I do not see how {0} is not translate invariant. $\endgroup$ Sep 11, 2013 at 19:27
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    $\begingroup$ The translate of $\{0\}$ by $1$ (to the right) is $\{1\}$, and $\: \{1\} \neq \{0\} \:\:$. $\;\;\;$ Therefore $\{0\}$ is not translation invariant. The translation of a measurable set is usually a different measurable set, as in the preceding example. However, the set of measurable sets is translation invariant. $\:$ $\endgroup$
    – user57159
    Sep 11, 2013 at 20:12

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