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I see an interesting statement:

Locally any surface may be written as the graph of a function, although one must sometimes write one as a function of the others.

So, does this infer such case, like the $yz$-plane, which can only be written as a function of $x$, $$x = G(y,z) = 0?$$

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As such (you even write $G(y,z)$!) the $yz$ plane is the graph of a function $(y,z)\mapsto x=0$ of $y$ and $z$, not of $x$. –  Hagen von Eitzen Aug 7 '13 at 18:02
Ahhhhh.. I meant to say written $x$ as a function of $y,z$. I didn't think clearly at that point. Thank you so much for clearing that out @HagenvonEitzen. –  WishingFish Aug 7 '13 at 18:12

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