# Difficult problem in the analysis of sequences [duplicate]

Let $a_n$ be a sequence of real numbers and let: $$\lim_{n \to \infty}(a_{n+1}-a_n)=0$$ Prove that every $a \in (\lim\text{inf}\,a_n, \lim\text{sup}\,a_n)$ is a limit point of $a_n$.

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## marked as duplicate by Pete L. Clark, L.G., Davide Giraudo, Lord_Farin, tetoriJul 31 '13 at 9:36

This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.

See the first answer here. –  David Mitra Jul 30 '13 at 14:30

## 1 Answer

If you look at $b_n:=a_{n+1}-a_n$ as the terms of a series. You can apply the idea in the proof of the Riemann series theorem. What are the partial sums of $\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}b_n$?

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