# Are the Godel's incompleteness theorems valid for both classical and intuitionistic logic?

I am studying an undergraduate text about math logic. The proofs of the two Godel's incompleteness theorems are not completely formal: they are admittedly simpler that the real proofs. For what I understood, I deduce the two theorems are valid for both classical and intuitionistic logic.

Is my deduction correct?

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The usual proof of Gödel's First Incompleteness Theorem is entirely constructive. We don't have to rely on excluded middle, or have to rely on proving an existential quantification for which we can't produce a witness. For recall: the proof consists in (a) giving a recipe which takes a suitable specification of a sufficiently strong theory $T$ and constructs a certain sentence $G_T$ and then (b) showing $G_T$ is undecidable in that theory. The construction of $G_T$ is clever though simple when you see how, and involves no infinitary ideas. The proof of undecidability involves a pair of reductios, but both of the non-contentious type [like "Suppose $T \vdash G_T$: then contradiction; so $T \nvdash G_T$"]. So overall the proof is intuitionistically acceptable.