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Let $R$ be a ring and let $S$ be a noetherian local subring of $R$. If $R$ is a finitely generated $S$-module, why $R$ is semi-local ring?

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Welcome to Math.SE. Thank you for your question. We will be better able to answer it if you share the context, as well as what you've tried so far. If this is homework, please tag it as such. – vadim123 May 27 '13 at 14:23
Your question follows easily from…. – user26857 Jan 22 '14 at 16:05

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