It takes me a long time to think about the equations even in one format and also to deduce things with Stokes. So how can you swap between the equations? I am looking more on the lines that suppose that I know one of the format -- how can I swap to the other?
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$\newcommand{\vect}[1]{\boldsymbol{#1}}$
$\newcommand{\vH}{\vect{H}}$
$\newcommand{\vE}{\vect{E}}$
$\newcommand{\vj}{\vect{j}}$
$\newcommand{\vx}{\vect{x}}$
$\newcommand{\vr}{\vect{r}}$
$\newcommand{\vnu}{\vect{\nu}}$
The integral form of a PDE usually comes from the physical definition of a quantity, say, for example For example, this is the differential form of Maxwell's equations describing how electromagnetic waves propagating through a linear isotropic material, where electric field intensity denoted as $\vE = \vE(\vx,t)$ and the magnetic field intensity denoted as $\vH = \vH(\vx,t)$. $$ \left\{ \begin{aligned} \frac{\partial (\mu \vH)}{\partial t} + \nabla \times \vE &= 0 \quad &\text{ in } \Omega\times (0,T) \\ \frac{\partial(\epsilon \vE)}{\partial t} + \sigma \vE - \nabla\times \vH &= \vj \quad &\text{ in } \Omega\times (0,T) \\ \nabla \cdot (\epsilon \vE) &= q \quad &\text{ in } \Omega\times (0,T) \\ \nabla \cdot (\mu \vH) &= 0 \quad &\text{ in } \Omega\times (0,T) \end{aligned} \right. $$ For example, we would like to get the integral form for the Faraday's law of the electric field $\vE$, integrate the first equation on any surface $S$ w.r.t. its surface measure $d S$: $$ - \int_{S} \frac{\partial (\mu \vH)}{\partial t}\cdot \vnu\,d S= \int_S (\nabla \times \vE)\cdot \vnu \,d S = \oint_{\partial S} \vE \cdot d\vr $$ where
This is basically the derivation from differential form to integral form. The reverse is similar, just the integral equations you have at first are all physical laws, for example Faraday's Law from wikipedia:
Then simply write this out using definition which is integral form, apply Stokes theorem in the reverse way, then you will end up with two equal integrals, for eg, use above example, you have $$ - \int_{S} \frac{\partial (\mu \vH)}{\partial t}\cdot \vnu\,d S= \int_S (\nabla \times \vE)\cdot \vnu \,d S $$ for any surface $S$, then you argue that the arbitrariness of $S$ implies $$ -\frac{\partial (\mu \vH)}{\partial t} = \nabla \times \vE $$ and there you go. Here mostly I state my own intuitive understanding of this subject while I was learning Physics as a mathematics student, will appreciate if anybody points out where I was wrong. |
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