We have functions $f_n\in L^1$ such that $f_n(x)$ tends to some $f(x)$ for almost all $x$. Does this mean that $f_n\to f$ in $L^1$? A necessary condition is $\|f_n\|<M$, is it sufficient?
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Hint: Consider $L^1(0,1)$, look at $f_n=n\cdot\chi_{(0,1/n)}$ (here $\chi_A$ denotes the characteristic function on $A$).
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No. For example, if $f_n=\chi_{[n,n+1]}$ then $(f_n)_{n\ge1}$ has pointwise limit $0$ but $\|f_n\|_1=1$ for every $n$ so $f_n\not\to 0$ in $L^1(\mathbb{R})$. |
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