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Let $f,\lbrace f_k\rbrace\in L^p$. I want to prove that if $f_k\to f$ a.e. and $\|f_k\|_p\to \|f\|_p$ then $\|f-f_k\|_p\to 0$.

I want to use some tricky Holder-inequality to use $\|f_k-f\|_1\to 0$ as $k\to \infty$ but I couldn't use the condition $\|f_k\|_p\to \|f\|_p$.

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merged by Willie Wong Jul 16 '11 at 1:49

This question was merged with If $f_k \to f$ a.e. and the $L^p$ norms converge, then $f_k \to f$ in $L^p$ because it is an exact duplicate of that question.