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Quick question regarding some exponential rules:

Why is it that $(1-(1-x))^n = x^n$?

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It actually has nothing to do with exponential rules! – A.P. May 3 '13 at 8:00

1 Answer 1

Simply because $$ 1-(1-x)=1-1-(-x)=x. $$ This has nothing to do with exponential rules.

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Right... Now I feel dumb :p Thanks though! – Marcus Loken May 3 '13 at 8:04
You're welcome, and no need to feel dumb :) – Stefan Hansen May 3 '13 at 8:06

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