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Quick question regarding some exponential rules:

Why is it that $(1-(1-x))^n = x^n$?

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It actually has nothing to do with exponential rules! –  A.P. May 3 '13 at 8:00
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1 Answer 1

Simply because $$ 1-(1-x)=1-1-(-x)=x. $$ This has nothing to do with exponential rules.

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Right... Now I feel dumb :p Thanks though! –  Marcus Loken May 3 '13 at 8:04
    
You're welcome, and no need to feel dumb :) –  Stefan Hansen May 3 '13 at 8:06
    
Don't worry dude shit happens i once did 1+1/2=5/2 got a negative mark in exam, the trick is that to be calm –  Kartikey May 3 '13 at 11:58
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