# Yoneda Lemma - $\mbox{Hom}(\mathbb{Z},G) \simeq G$ [duplicate]

Simple question - is it true that $\mbox{Hom}(\mathbb{Z},G) \simeq G$ (probably by Yoneda Lemma, which I struggle to understand!)

Edit: $G$ is an abelian group

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Yes, it is true and much simpler than Yoneda's Lemma: a homomorphism is uniquely determined by its image on 1 $\in \mathbb{Z}$, since 1 generates $\mathbb{Z}$ as a group. By identifying a $\sigma\in \text{Hom}(\mathbb{Z},G)$ with $\sigma(1)\in G$, you get your isomorphism (bijectivity and the fact that this is a group homomorphism follow straight from group axioms).