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If $g: \mathbb{R} \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ is continuously differentiable function such that $g'(a) \neq 0$ for all $a \in \mathbb{R}$, show that g is injective.

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1 Answer 1

Suppose there exist $a \neq b$ such that $g(a)=g(b)$. Then use mean value theorem to find $c \in (a,b)$ such that $g'(c)=0$.

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I think we don't need to use the mean value theorem. Since g(a)=g(b), we can use Rolle's theorem –  user43418 Mar 31 '13 at 11:12
    
@user43418: You are right; in fact, the two theorems are equivalent. –  Seirios Mar 31 '13 at 11:13
    
But I still don't know how to conclude –  user43418 Mar 31 '13 at 11:15
    
@user43418: You can conclude by contraposition, "if $g$ is not injective then $g'$ has a zero" is equivalent to "if $g'$ doesn't vanish then $g$ is injective". –  Seirios Mar 31 '13 at 11:18

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