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Let $k \geq 2$ be a positive integer and let $n=2^k+1$. How can I prove that $n$ is a prime number if and only if $$3^{\frac{n-1}{2}} \equiv -1 \pmod n.$$

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This is not true in general (consider $k=1$ for example). You need some additional conditions. Look at Proth's theorem. en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Proth%27s_theorem –  Siva Apr 14 '11 at 7:22
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Note that one needs to ask that $k \ge 2$. –  André Nicolas Apr 14 '11 at 7:24
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The title of the question is misleading. –  lhf Sep 8 '11 at 17:16
    
@lhf: I changed the title as I agree the title was misleading. One could maybe add $k \geq 2$ to the title as well, but I'm not sure if the title doesn't become too long then. –  TMM Sep 28 '11 at 14:21
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2 Answers 2

Here are two options for finding a proper proof for this theorem (called Pepin's test).

1) http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pepin's_test.

2) "Solved and Unsolved Problems in Number Theory" by Daniel Shanks. This book includes the proof for that theorem.

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This is the simplest case of Pratt certificates for primality - have a look at http://mathworld.wolfram.com/PrattCertificate.html for a better explanation. (In the notation of the article, your question corresponds to the case where the only $p_i$ is $2$.)

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