Let $n\in\mathbb{N},\ T>0$ and $$\Sigma:=\{\sigma\in L^{2}(0,T;\mathbb{R}^{n}):\sum_{i=1}^{n}\sigma_{i}(t)=1,\ \sigma_{i}(t)\geq 0\ \hbox{almost everywhere}\}.$$
Do we then have $$\Sigma\overset{c}{\hookrightarrow} L^{2}(0,T;\mathbb{R}^{n}),$$ that is $\Sigma$ is compact in $L^{2}(0,T;\mathbb{R}^{n})$.
A popular paper concerning this topic is the paper "Compact sets in the space $L^{p}(0,T;B)$" written by Jacques Simon. Therein it is stated that a set is compact if and only if
the set $\left\{\int_{t_{1}}^{t_{2}}\sigma(t)dt,\ \sigma\in\Sigma\right\}$ is relatively compact in $\mathbb{R}^{n}\ \forall\ 0<t_{1}<t_{2}<T$,
$\sup\limits_{\sigma\in\Sigma}\|\sigma(\cdot+h)-\sigma(\cdot)\|_{L^{2}(0,T;\mathbb{R}^{n})}\rightarrow 0$ for $h\rightarrow 0$.
The first statement can easily be proved, but we fail in proving the second statement. Maybe someone has an idea or has seen such a problem...or maybe the second statement does not hold for $\Sigma$ at all.
We are thankful for every hint or comment and thank You very much in advance
Alex