Take the 2-minute tour ×
Mathematics Stack Exchange is a question and answer site for people studying math at any level and professionals in related fields. It's 100% free, no registration required.

There is a question on a test about a binomial process where you are given the variance and the mean, and you are asked to approximate $n$, the total number of trials in the binomial process, to the nearest integer.

Long story short, the mean was stated as 1.2 (variance I forgot) and I eventually got $n=1.44$. Should I approximate this as $n=1$ or $n=2$? Although $1.44$ is closer to $1$, I think that since the mean 1.2 is greater than 1, $n=1$ is impossible. Am I right in thinking this way?

share|improve this question
    
I think your variance is $0.2$ based on the info. I would pick $n=2$ for the exact reason you stated. –  jay-sun Mar 12 '13 at 23:28

Your Answer

 
discard

By posting your answer, you agree to the privacy policy and terms of service.

Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.