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There is a question on a test about a binomial process where you are given the variance and the mean, and you are asked to approximate $n$, the total number of trials in the binomial process, to the nearest integer.

Long story short, the mean was stated as 1.2 (variance I forgot) and I eventually got $n=1.44$. Should I approximate this as $n=1$ or $n=2$? Although $1.44$ is closer to $1$, I think that since the mean 1.2 is greater than 1, $n=1$ is impossible. Am I right in thinking this way?

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I think your variance is $0.2$ based on the info. I would pick $n=2$ for the exact reason you stated. – jay-sun Mar 12 '13 at 23:28

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