There is a question on a test about a binomial process where you are given the variance and the mean, and you are asked to approximate $n$, the total number of trials in the binomial process, to the nearest integer.
Long story short, the mean was stated as 1.2 (variance I forgot) and I eventually got $n=1.44$. Should I approximate this as $n=1$ or $n=2$? Although $1.44$ is closer to $1$, I think that since the mean 1.2 is greater than 1, $n=1$ is impossible. Am I right in thinking this way?