If $c<0$ then $(\log(n))^c\to0$ and $n^d\to\infty$ as $n\to\infty$,whence the claim.
If $c=0$, also $n^d\to\infty$ gives us the desired result.
Assume $c>0$.
First show that
$$\tag1 \lim_{x\to\infty}\frac{\ln x}{x}=0.$$
Then, substituting $x\leftarrow x^a$ with $a>0$ (so that $x\to+\infty\iff x^a\to+\infty$), this turns into
$$ \lim_{x\to+\infty}\frac{\ln x^a}{x^a}=\lim_{x\to\infty}\frac{a\ln x}{x^a}=0,$$
hence
$$ \lim_{x\to+\infty}\frac{\ln x}{x^a}=0.$$
By taking $c$th powers, $c>0$, and letting $a=\frac dc$, we find
$$ \lim_{x\to+\infty}\frac{(\ln x)^c}{x^d}=0.$$
How to show $(1)$?
The inequality $e^y\ge 1+y$ for $y\in\mathbb R$ should be well-known.
Then $e^y=(e^{y/2})^2\ge (1+\frac y2)^2=1+y+\frac 14y^2$ for $y\ge -2$ so that substituting $x\leftarrow e^y$, the claim in $(1)$ follows from
$$0\le \lim_{y\to+\infty}\frac y{e^y}\le \lim_{y\to+\infty}\frac y{1+y+\frac14y^2}\le \lim_{y\to+\infty}\frac y{\frac14y^2}=0.$$