Mathematics Stack Exchange is a question and answer site for people studying math at any level and professionals in related fields. Join them; it only takes a minute:

Sign up
Here's how it works:
  1. Anybody can ask a question
  2. Anybody can answer
  3. The best answers are voted up and rise to the top

For arbitrary $\theta, \psi$, is the following statement true:

$$\iint \frac{\partial}{\partial y}(\theta^2) \frac{\partial \psi}{\partial x} -\frac{\partial}{\partial x}(\theta^2) \frac{\partial \psi}{\partial y}\,dy\,dx = 0$$

And, more generally, given that one can say (neglecting constant of integration) $$\int \frac{d}{dx}f(x)\, dx=f(x)$$ is it true that:

$$\int \frac{\partial}{\partial x}f(x)\, dx=f(x)$$

share|cite|improve this question

Your Answer


By posting your answer, you agree to the privacy policy and terms of service.

Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.