My book defines the complement of a set as, "Let $U$ be the universal set. The complement of the set $A$, denoted by $\bar{A}$, is the complement of $A$ with respect to $U$. Therefore, the complement of the set $A$ is $U−A$."
To me, it seems like it would be important to add that $A \subseteq U$; and you could possibly have $U \subseteq A$, so $A - U = \varnothing$. Is this a valid and important point; furthermore, should it have been added to the definition?

