This exercise come from Zorich,Mathematical Analysis,I P232 Exercise 6
6 Let $f \in C^{(n)} ( ]-1,1[ )$ and $\sup_{-1<x<1}|f(x)|\leq 1$. let $m_k(I)=\inf_{x\in I}|f^{(k)}(x)|$, where $I$ is an interval contained in $]-1,1[$, show that
a) if $I$ is partitioned into three successive intervals $I_1,I_2$ and $I_3$ and $\mu$ is the length of $I_2$,then $$m_k(I)\leq \frac{1}{\mu}\left(m_{k-1}(I_1)+m_{k-1}(I_3)\right)$$
b) if $I$ has length $\lambda$, then $$m_k(I) \leq \frac{2^{k(k+1)/2}k^k}{\lambda_k}$$
c) there exists a number $\alpha_n$ depending only on $n$ such that if $|f'(0)|\geq \alpha_n$,then the equation $f^{(n)}(x)=0$ has at least $n-1$ distinct roots in $]-1,1[$
Consider the question "c)" Assume $f(x)=\frac{e^x}{e}$, then $f \in C^{\infty}$,and $\sup_{-1<x<1}|f|=\sup_{-1<x<1}\frac{e^x}{e} = 1$, which satisfies the conditions. and if we take $\alpha_n\leq \frac{1}{e}$. then $|f'(0)|=\frac{1}{e}\geq \alpha_n$, but $f^{(n)}=\frac{e^x}{e}$,and $\frac{e^x}{e}=0$ has no roots in $\Bbb{R}$. Dose this a counter-example?
What's wrong with me? Thanks very much.