This is perhaps something simple; but I am not quite getting why the implication is true; I seem to be missing something.
Supposedly, the implicit function theorem:
Let $f: \mathbb{R}^{n + m} \rightarrow \mathbb{R}^m$ be a continuously differentiable function, and let $\mathbb{R}^{n+m} $ have coordinates $( x, y)$, where $x \in \mathbb{R}^n$ and $y\in \mathbb{R}^m$. Fix a point $( a , b) = (a_1 , \ldots , a_n , b_1 , \ldots, b_m )$ with $ f( a, b) = c$, where $c \in \mathbb{R}^m$. If the matrix $( \partial f_i/\partial y_j)(a,b)$ is invertible, then there exists an open set $U$ containing $a$, and an open set $V$ contntaining $b$, and a unique continuously differentiable function $g: U \rightarrow V$ such that $$ \{ (\mathbf{x}, g(\mathbf{x}))|\mathbf x \in U \} = \{ (\mathbf{x}, \mathbf{y}) \in U \times V| f(\mathbf{x}, \mathbf{y}) = \mathbf{c} \}.$$
implies that implicit differentiation is okay:
$$ \frac{dy}{dx} = -\frac{\partial F / \partial x}{\partial F / \partial y}.$$
What am I missing here? I again apologize if this is something very trivial.
