Sign up ×
Mathematics Stack Exchange is a question and answer site for people studying math at any level and professionals in related fields. It's 100% free, no registration required.

Why the principal value of complex number argument is taken within $(-\pi,\pi]?$ What is the harm in considering similar other intervals like $[0,2\pi)$ for the purpose?

share|cite|improve this question

1 Answer 1

up vote 3 down vote accepted

Absolutly no harm, it is just a convention. Usually one wants the argument function to be continuous around non negative reals.

share|cite|improve this answer
@SugataAdhya If what you want to do is more to the left than to the right of the imaginary axis, then $[0, 2\pi)$ is better. It's all about context. – Arthur Feb 18 '13 at 11:16

Your Answer


By posting your answer, you agree to the privacy policy and terms of service.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.