EDIT: After mrf's comment below and some discussion with my instructor for the course it was decided that the below was not really an issue. Namely, I went into reading this lecture with the notion that we were going to solve the $\bar{\partial}$ equation--that this was our main goal. In other words, in the below we were mainly $f$ focused and not $\phi$ focused. In all actuality, it is the other way around. We were supposed to know that the $\bar{\partial}$ equation always has distributional solutions and that, in fact, we were really interested in finding solutions to $\bar{\partial}u=f$ with $u$ having controlled $\|\cdot\|_\phi$ norm.
This begs two questions though that I would love if someone may be able to fill in:
This is the one-dimensional case of Hormander's Theorem. Can someone give me intuition about why as an algebraic/differential geometer having Hormander's theorem is such a huge deal (as it is made out to be).
mrf says that the below theorems actually show that $\bar{\partial}u=f$ is always solvable for any $f$ since we can always find (given a fixed $f$) a $C^2(\Omega,\mathbb{R})$ subharmonic function $\phi$ for which $\displaystyle \int_\Omega\frac{|f|^2}{\Delta\phi}e^{-\phi}$ is finite (we need finiteness to actually show a solution exists). Is there an easy way to see why such a function $\phi$ always exists for a given $f$?
Thanks!
I am currently reading the Park City lecture notes on Analytic and Algebraic Geometry (this book) and am really confused by some implicit assumptions made in the first lecture of the first minicourse (Lecture 1 of Bo Berndtsson's "An Introduction to Things $\overline{\partial}$").
Let me explain some of the background to the issue I am having. Let $\phi\in C^2(\Omega,\mathbb{R})$ be subharmonic and define the inner product:
$$\langle f,g\rangle_\phi=\int_\Omega f\bar{g}e^{-\phi}$$
and the norm $\|\alpha\|_\phi^2=\langle \alpha,\alpha\rangle_\phi$. We then define $\bar{\partial}^\ast_\phi$ to be the adjoint of $\bar{\phi}$ with respect to $\langle,\rangle_\phi$. Explicitly one can show that
$$\bar{\partial}^\ast_\phi\alpha=-e^{\phi}\frac{\partial}{\partial z}\left(e^{-\phi}\alpha\right)$$
So, now we are trying to follow the proof of Theorem 1.1.3 in the book which is stated as follows:
Theorem 1.1.3 Let $\Omega\subseteq\mathbb{C}$ be a domain and suppose that $\phi\in C^2(\Omega,\mathbb{R})$ which is subharmonic. Then, for any $f\in L^2_{\text{loc}}(\Omega)$ there is a distributional solution $u$ to $\displaystyle \frac{\partial u}{\partial \bar{z}}=f$ subject to $$\int_\Omega |u|^2 e^{-\phi}\leqslant \int_\Omega \frac{|f|^2}{\Delta \phi}e^{-\phi}$$
The author states that the theorem follows from the following three propositions:
Proposition 1.1.1 Given $f$ there exists a distributional solution to $\displaystyle \frac{\partial u}{\partial\bar{z}}$ satisfying $$\|u\|_\phi^2\leqslant C\quad \mathbf{(1.3)}$$ for some $C>0$ if and only if the estimate $$\left\langle f,\alpha\right\rangle_\phi \leqslant C\|\bar{\partial}^\ast_\phi \alpha\|_\phi\quad\mathbf{(1.4)}$$ holds for every $\alpha\in C^2_c(\Omega)$.
,
Proposition 1.1.1(cont.) For any given $\mu:\Omega\to\mathbb{R}^+$ $\mathbf{(1.4)}$ holds for all $f$ satisfying $$\int_\Omega \frac{|f|^2}{\mu}e^{-\phi}\, dz\leqslant C\quad\mathbf{(1.5)}$$ if and only if $$\int_\Omega \mu|\alpha|^2 e^{-\phi}\, dz\leqslant \|\bar{\partial}^\ast_\phi\alpha\|\quad\mathbf{(1.6)}$$ holds for all $\alpha\in C^2_c(\Omega)$.
and,
Proposition 1.1.2 Let $\Omega\subseteq\mathbb{C}$ be a domain $\phi\in C^2(\Omega,\mathbb{R})$ and $\alpha\in C_c^2(\Omega)$. Then, $$\int_\Omega \Delta\phi|\alpha|^2 e^{-\phi}+\int_\Omega\left|\frac{\partial \alpha}{\partial\bar{z}}\right|^2 e^{-\phi}=\|\bar{\partial}^\ast_\phi\alpha\|\quad\mathbf{(1.7)}$$
It seems by the ease to which he claims Theorem 1.1.3 follows from these three propositions that the easy answer should be the correct one. The easier answer is that Proposition 1.1.2 shows that (1.6) holds for $\mu=\Delta\phi$. Thus, Proposition 1.1.1(cont.) implies that for every $f$ satisfying (1.5) we have that $f$ satisfies (1.4) for all $\alpha$ and thus we have a distributional solution to $\displaystyle \frac{\partial u}{\partial\bar{z}}u=f$ satisfying (1.3).
Ok, so everything seems hunky-dory, all of this goes through correctly to prove Theorem 1.1.3 if, given $f\in L^2_{\text{loc}}(\Omega)$, we could take
$$C=\int_\Omega \frac{|f|^2}{\Delta\phi}e^{-\phi}$$
The only issue is that the apply the proof of Proposition 1.1.1 we apply Riesz-Fischer to a certain operator $L$, the boundedness of which follows because we obtain a bound $\|L\|_\text{op}\leqslant C$. Thus, everything breaks down if $C$ is infinite. So, all of this strongly seems to suggest that the integral
$$\int_\Omega\frac{|f|^2}{\Delta\phi}e^{-\phi}$$
is finite for every $f\in L^2_\text{loc}(\Omega)$ and every subharmonic $\phi\in C^2(\Omega,\mathbb{R})$. But, I am fairly sure this is not true (just take $\Omega=\mathbb{C}$, $\phi=x^2+y^2$, and $f=\exp(2(x^2+y^2))$). Even if we require that $f\in L^2_{\text{loc}}(\Omega)$ and $fe^{\frac{-\phi}{2}}\in L^2(\Omega)$ (which may be a possible typo) there is still doubt that this integral always converges.
If anyone could provide any insight into what I am missing/what the author may have meant I would be extremely grateful.