I am reading a proof of there are infinitely many primes of the form $4m+3$, but have trouble understanding it. The proof goes like this: Assume there are finitely many primes, and take $p_k$ to be the largest prime of the form $4m+3$. Let $N_k = 2^2 \cdot 3 \cdot 5 \cdots p_k -1$, where $p_1=2, p_2=3, p_3=5,$... denotes the sequence of all primes. We find that $N_k$ is congruent to $ 3 \pmod {4}$, so it must have a prime factor of the form $4m+3$, and this prime factor is larger than $p_k$—contradiction.
My questions are:
- Why is $N_k$ congruent to $3 \pmod{4}$?
- Why must $N_k$ have a prime factor of the form $4m+3$ if it's congruent to $3 \pmod{4}$?
It seems that those should be obvious, but I don't see it. Any help would be appreciated!