Perhaps someone could venture an explanation (maybe with some unproven assumptions) that makes heuristic sense of relation (1),(2) and examples below? Thanks for any insights.
Let $\pi(n) = $ number of primes $ \leq n.$ Let $x_i <n,~~ i = 1,2,3,...$ such that $x_i^2+x_i \pm k $ is prime, in which $k \ll n$ is an odd integer. Let $\pi_p(n)$ be the number of such primes less than or equal to $n^2+n\pm k.$
$$(1)\hspace{10mm}\frac{\sum_{x_i|x_i^2+x_i\pm k~\in P}\ln x_i}{n}\approx \frac{\pi_p(n)} {\pi(n)}$$
Rearranging and applying the PNT simplifies (but weakens) the relation:
$$\pi_p(n)\cdot\ln n \sim \sum \ln x_i $$
But re-writing (1) this way doesn't seem to hurt the approximation (much):
$$(2)\hspace{10mm} \frac{\pi_p(n)}{\sum \ln x_i}\approx \frac{\pi(n)}{\sum_{p<n}\ln p}$$
And finally this--just inverting:
$$(3)\hspace{10mm} \frac{\sum \ln x_i}{\pi_p(n)}\approx \frac{\sum \ln p}{\pi(n)}\implies \frac{1}{m}\sum \ln x_i \approx \frac{1}{q}\sum \ln p,$$
a suggestion that maybe the average of $\ln x, x < n$ such that $x^2+x+k$ is prime, in which m is the number of these primes, is close to the average of $\ln p$ for $p < n$ in which q is $\pi(n).$
Two examples:
For (1). Primes of the form $x^2+x-15$ for $x = n \leq 500,000.$
$$\frac{\sum \ln x_i}{n} = 0.5157\approx \frac{\pi_p(n)}{\pi(n)} = 0.5165$$
For (2). Primes of form $x^2+x+1, x = n < 500,000.$
$$\frac{\pi_p(n)}{\sum \ln x_i} = 0.08320 \approx \frac{\pi(n)}{\sum \ln p} = 0.08315$$
