Yeah there is a function.
$$f(x)=\left\{
\begin{array}{rl}
\sin^2\left(\frac{1}{x}\right) e^{-(x^{-2})}+e^{-(x^{-4})} & x\neq 0\\
0 & x=0\\
\end{array}\right. $$
It's obvious that the function is $C^\infty$, since $e^{-(x^{-4})}$ is strictly greater $0$ and the other term is greater equal $0$, $f$ must have a strict global and local minimum in $0$.
The monotonicity thing is a bit more technical, using
$$a_n=\frac{1}{2\pi n} \quad b_n=\frac{1}{2\pi n + \frac{\pi}{2} }$$
with $a_n, b_n \rightarrow 0$ and $$a_n> b_n>a_{n-1}$$ for all $n$ (where the sequences are defined).$$f(a_n)=e^{-16\pi^4 n^4}$$ and $$f(b_n)=e^{-(2 \pi n+\frac{\pi}{2})^2}+e^{-(2\pi n+ \frac{\pi}{2})^4}$$
We see $f(b_n)>f(b_{n+1})$, but $f(a_n)< f(b_n)> f(a_{n-1})$. So the function can't be monotone on $[0,\varepsilon)$